For ye are all sons of God, through faith, in Christ Jesus...when the fullness of the time came, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the Law, so that He might redeem those who were under the Law, that we might receive the adoption as sons. Because you are sons, God has sent forth the Spirit of His Son into our hearts, crying, "Abba! Father!"… For those who are led by the Spirit of God are the children of God...The Spirit himself testifies with our spirit that we are God's children...See what great love the Father has lavished on us, that we should be called children of God! And that is what we are! The reason the world does not know us is that it did not know him....Dear friends, now we are children of God, and what we will be has not yet been made known. But we know that when Christ appears, we shall be like him, for we shall see him as he is. ...those that received Him, to them He gave authority to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his Name, who were born, not of blood nor of the will of the flesh nor of the will of man, but of God.
Finally in context: Psalm 82:5-7King James Version (KJV) 5 They know not, neither will they understand; they walk on in darkness: all the foundations of the earth are out of course. 6 I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High. 7 But ye shall die like men, and fall like one of the princes.
Davewhite04: This is Part 1 of 2. The Bible is infallible. It does not contradict itself. That said, I encourage you to remind yourself of what you correctly stated at Post 12: "Our God is not a God of confusion." So whenever there appears to be contradiction among the scriptures, we have to recognize that the problem is not with the scriptures. The problem is with our understanding of what we are reading. Remember that; okay? You are of the belief that Psalms 2:7 applies to King David because when David quoted Jehovah at that verse, he prefaced it with: "the Lord said to me." "I will declare the decree: the Lord hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee." (Psalms 2:7) However, scripture at John 1:14, taken from your OP, clearly says "the Word"/Jesus Christ is the ONLY begotten son of Jehovah. "And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the ONLY begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth." (John 1:14) John 1:14 contradicts your belief that Psalms 2:7 is saying David is begotten of God and that therefore, there are two begotten sons (David and Jesus). Why so? Because the word "only" (as in "only begotten son") is an expression that excludes all others. To help you discover the answer in the context to Psalms 2:7, let us move away from Psalms for now so that we can establish David's role in God's arrangement. Notice the scriptural account below and the questions that follows. Focus on the words that are bolded within the scriptural quotation. "{10} Then David lay down with his forefathers and was buried in the City of David. {11} And the days that David had reigned over Israel were forty years. In Hebron he had reigned seven years, and in Jerusalem he had reigned thirty-three years. (12) As for Solomon, he sat down upon the throne of David his father; and gradually his [Solomon's] kingship became very firmly established." (1 Kings 2:10-12) QUESTION #1 to DAVEWHITE04: Based upon scripture at 1 Kings 2:10-12, David's role as a king ended when he died, at which point, his son, Solomon, succeeded him. TRUE or FALSE? QUESTION #2 to DAVEWHITE04: According to 1 Kings 2:11, David's role as king was confined to his rulership over Israel, for a period of 40 years. TRUE or FALSE? QUESTION #3 to DAVEWHITE04: Are there any scriptures that indicate King David was supposed to rule the entire earth or that he was to rule anywhere else upon his death? If so, present Bible book, chapter, and verse. I will give you Part 2 of 2 once we have discussed the above. By the end of Part 2, you should have discovered the answer within the context of Psalms 2:7. Alter2Ego
http://skepticsannotatedbible.com/contra/gods_children.html Thanks, people can do without being sons of God.
You are a very elegant writer, I'll answer as best I can. 1) True 2) True In context: Jeremiah 30: 8 For it shall come to pass in that day, saith the Lord of hosts, that I will break his yoke from off thy neck, and will burst thy bonds, and strangers shall no more serve themselves of him: 9 But they shall serve the Lord their God, and David their king, whom I will raise up unto them. 10 Therefore fear thou not, O my servant Jacob, saith the Lord; neither be dismayed, O Israel: for, lo, I will save thee from afar, and thy seed from the land of their captivity; and Jacob shall return, and shall be in rest, and be quiet, and none shall make him afraid.
Thank you for the complement, davewhite04. And, yes, your response to Question 1 is correct. David's role as king ended when he died. You are again correct. David's role as king was confined to his rulership over Israel. Alter2Ego
Davewhite04: Look at the portions that I bolded in red within your above response. The account you quoted from Jeremiah 30:8-10 is a prophecy. It was written at a time when the ancient Israelites were under Babylonian captivity, as confirmed at Jeremiah 29:1. The prophecy also says: "Jacob shall return." There are no scriptures that indicate David and Jacob were resurrected from the dead at that time, after which they literally returned to rescue the Israelites from King Nebuchadnezzar. They were both still dead. So the mentioning of David and Jacob in that prophecy is not literal. Their names are used there because of what they represented. Not only that, the mentioning of David at Jeremiah 30:9 is restricted to his rulership over ancient Israel. Jeremiah 30:10 makes that clear when it states "O Israel" followed by God's promise to save the Israelites "from the land of their captivity." Now that we have had the discussion of Questions 1-3, I will present Part 2 of 2 the next time I log in. Alter2Ego
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Sons of God in the old testament. Imo is a slight on words, there are in my opinion only, that Some "beings" made (like the earth-spoken into existence only) an some "created" ( like Adam and Eve.) The bible might hint that in some ways that Adam an Eve where not totally the beginning. There is also those that believe in Lilith. Also others have thoughts along this same line. Like -> quote -> , http://charm1123.hubpages.com/hub/Adam-and-Eve-were-not-the-first-human-beings-that-God-Created Let me start by saying that Adam and Eve were not the first human beings that God created. If you read Genesis 1:26-28, 1:31 states that God said let us make man in our image, after our likeness he created the first man in his own image. This explains that God created MAN Then in Genesis 1:31 And God saw everything that he made and behold it was very good. Meaning everything that he made at this time was very good he would not have been able to say it was good if he had not made man in his own image
Excellent post. The question is when did He make us? Is evolution true? Did man truly evolve and then God continued His work when it was the right time to do so? I've read up about fossils in particular, and my research indicates flaws in the record. http://www.actionbioscience.org/evolution/levinton.html I do not have faith in the fossil record, and find it puzzling as to why atheists/evolution believers do not question their beliefs more. My answer; I think there is only one race, the human race, and if one of us is not related to God, then none of us are. Hitler for example did not agree with my opinion and look how many human beings suffered because of it.
You're making a good case. It is obviously a prophecy, and you are correct, David did not return then. Considering that the bible is infallible then this prophecy is yet to pass, do you agree? Remember. I am saying that David and Jesus both were God's only Son, because the Son of God is a spirit, just like God the Father. What this would mean is that both the Christians and to a certain extent, the Jews are batting for the same side, Islam is almost included too in the mix, as they recognise both Jesus and David, they make an error as in they don't believe God has or will ever have a son.
Davewhite04: The prophecy at Jeremiah 30:8-10 was fulfilled within 70 years of the captivity of the ancient Israelites, at the hands of Nebuchadrezzar. That prophecy was against the king of Babylon. Notice the evidence that the captivity of the ancient Israelites only lasted for 70 years after they were captured by the Babylonians. Focus on the words that are bolded within the scriptural quotation. "{1} The word that occurred to Jeremiah concerning all the people of Judah in the fourth year of Jehoikim the son of Josiah, the king of Judah, that is, the first year of Nebuchadrezzar the king of Babylon; {2} which Jeremiah the prophet spoke concerning all the people of Judah and concerning all the inhabitants of Jerusalem, saying: {11} "And all this land must become a devasted place, an object of astonishment, and these nations will have to serve the king of Babylon seventy years. {12} And it must occur that when seventy years have been fulfilled I shall call to account against the king of Babylon and against that nation," is the utterance of Jehovah, "their error, even against the land of the Chaldeans, and I will make it desolate wastes to time indefinite."" (Jeremiah 1, 2, and 11, 12) Again, the mentioning of David and Jacob at Jeremiah 30:8-10 is not with respect to the literal David and Jacob. Why so? Because scripture makes no mention of them being resurrected from the dead and helping to free the ancient Israelites after 70 years of Babylonian captivity. Their names are part of that prophecy because of what they represented when they were alive (prior to their deaths). Alter2Ego
Hitler was a religion unto himself. Atheism wasn't the problem with Hitler. He liked to play golf but that wasn't the problem with him either. Being a psychopath is the issue.
