At what age man become a human

Discussion in 'Human Science' started by timojin, Aug 19, 2015.

  1. Walter L. Wagner Cosmic Truth Seeker Valued Senior Member

    Messages:
    2,494
    First, I did not change my argument. Apparently, you misread it. I said all along it was the sapien male having sex with the neanderthal female that caused the admixture of neanderthal genes in our genepool. The male offspring of those unions might have shown hybrid-vigor, and could have also reproduced more frequently than others that were from pure sapien-sapien unions and not sapien/neanderthal unions.

    Yes, I was aware that the authors of that article conjecture as to why the neanderthal y-chromosome is not present in modern people. I believe their conjecture is incorrect. I cited the article to cite facts, not to suggest their conjecture on those facts was correct. They have no evidence to support their conjecture, nor do you. I believe the correct answer is the simple answer. The neanderthal male did not successfully propagate with sapien female, and could not pass on their y-chromosome to the sapien lineage.

    The facts are simply this: no neanderthal y-chromosome in modern people. no neanderthal mt-dna (maternal mitochondria) in modern people.

    I gave a simple explanation for those facts, compatible with known human behavior. All other explanations are highly convoluted, and involve pure conjecture at this point. From the article I cited:

    "Why is not yet clear. The Neanderthal Y chromosome genes could have simply drifted out of the human gene pool by chance over the millennia. Another possibility, said Mendez, is that Neanderthal Y chromosomes include genes that are incompatible with other human genes, and he and his colleagues have found evidence supporting this idea. Indeed, one of the Y chromosome genes that differ in Neanderthals has previously been implicated in transplant rejection when males donate organs to women. "The functional nature of the mutations we found," said Bustamante, "suggests to us that Neanderthal Y chromosome sequences may have played a role in barriers to gene flow, but we need to do experiments to demonstrate this and are working to plan these now." ... Theoretically, said Mendez, a woman's immune system might attack a male fetus carrying Neanderthal H-Y genes. If women consistently miscarried male babies carrying Neanderthal Y chromosomes, that would explain its absence in modern humans. So far this is just a hypothesis, but the immune systems of modern women are known to sometimes react to male offspring when there's genetic incompatibility." https://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2016/04/160407132318.htm

    I'm not certain why the authors did not search for a simple explanation. Possibly their explanation is correct. Certainly, they are looking for funding for their hypothesis. But their hypothesis appears (to me) to be highly improbable, particularly in light of a simple explanation. Perhaps they have been influenced by people such as yourself who don't like the simple explanation for whatever bias they might have.
     
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