why is the bar tender not a particle ? "The Particle Tender" says "make mine a thruple divisive of none"
If the two retrocausal particles then get pissed, we are talking exciting new physics. Other than that, shouldn't the thread title be 'Can retrocausality save us from explain non-locality' That is - how does retrocausalty not automatically imply nonlocality? Unless one is happy with 'contextual/many-worlds' interpretations?