If a = b, then 1 = 2

Discussion in 'General Philosophy' started by Speakpigeon, Oct 6, 2019.

  1. Truck Captain Stumpy The Right Honourable Reverend Truck Captain Valued Senior Member

    Messages:
    1,263
    this was not specified in the initial post, either, so it's a valid answer

    what seems to have happened is that you've either written a poorly worded question by happenstance, you are studying a topic and need to see how people approach ambiguous questions or, as James R stated, you're playing a game (which, given some posters on the site, will most certainly end poorly).

    perhaps you should clarify your position and ask a moderator to add the caveat to the original post - or start another thread where you're more specific about what you are seeking.
     
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  3. Speakpigeon Valued Senior Member

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    I disagree. The question is simple: Are you able to explain what would be illogical in the implication...

    There is absolutely nothing to be misunderstood. Sometimes, you have to wonder how people get round to understand whatever they may read in books, newspaper, e-mails, tax returns forms etc. I can't be always behind them to help them go through life.

    The problem is that some people fail to read the question properly because of their personal focus. I know what I am talking about. I have done many polls over the years and however carefully you phrase and word, there will be people who will misinterpret, and only some of them because of sheer contrariness.

    I am not interested in the answers of people who misinterpret my questions.
    EB
     
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  5. Janus58 Valued Senior Member

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    When I first saw this thread, I immediately thought of the fake algebraic "Proof":
    a=b
    a^2=ab
    a^2-b^2 = ab-b^2
    (a+b)(a-b) = b(a-b)
    a+b =b
    a+a=a
    2a=a
    2=1

    The flaw is between lines 4 and 5. to get from (a+b)(a-b)= b(a-b) to a+b =b, you divide both sides by a-b. But if a=b, then you are dividing by zero, which is undefined and not allowed, so of course the next steps will result in nonsense.
     
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  7. Speakpigeon Valued Senior Member

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    Sure, but this only speaks of this particular proof as being wrong, not of the implication itself as being not valid.
    A proof may be wrong and the implication valid.
    EB
     
  8. Write4U Valued Senior Member

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    18,613
    Is that not an evasion? The proof falsifies the Implied validity.
    Offer a valid proof and you will have Explicit validity. If you cannot, the premise itself is not valid.
     
  9. Truck Captain Stumpy The Right Honourable Reverend Truck Captain Valued Senior Member

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    1,263
    ok
    this assumes much, doesn't it?
    if you've done polls over the years then it stands to reason that you've had some experience with poorly worded questions (which you intimate).
    people who do polls learn how to minimize extemporaneous verbiage while maximizing focus on a specific topic - they do not pose ambiguous questions in the hopes that most of the people will understand their point unless they're new, they're attempting to manipulate the poll to get a specific result or they're inept


    then why are you:
    1- replying to them?
    2- arguing with them?
    3- getting snippy?
     
  10. Speakpigeon Valued Senior Member

    Messages:
    1,123
    No. An argument is valid irrespective of whether someone knows any proof. There is no notion of implied or explicit validity in logic. An argument is valid if it is acceptable to you. That is all that validity means. A proof is just an explicitation of the logic of the argument, to help us understand it.
    EB
     
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  11. Speakpigeon Valued Senior Member

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    1,123
    You're right.
    EB
     
  12. Jeeves Valued Senior Member

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    5,028
    This is as valid a response to
    as the OP question was a valid logical proposition.
     
  13. Gawdzilla Sama Valued Senior Member

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    I never claimed to be a scientist.
     
  14. Jeeves Valued Senior Member

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    What does imperfect equality look like in math?
     
  15. Gawdzilla Sama Valued Senior Member

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    3,864
    a = b?
     
  16. Jeeves Valued Senior Member

    Messages:
    5,028
    No, that would be perfect equality under the alphabet constitution.
    Unless you mean the right side includes the question mark, which would make the equation completely unequal, two characters against one, or else, a confident character and b not so sure of itself, depending on how one interprets the question mark.
     
  17. davewhite04 Valued Senior Member

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    4,894
    Implication? Fine.
     

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