Is no philosophy better than any philosophy?

Discussion in 'General Philosophy' started by Seattle, Dec 4, 2016.

  1. Sarkus Hippomonstrosesquippedalo phobe Valued Senior Member

    wellwisher, have you ever bothered to check the accuracy of what you post before you bother posting them? No? It might help stop you posting drivel if you do.

    For instance:
    This is a myth. That flat-earth was the prevailing view during the Middle Ages seems to have gained traction during the late 19th and early 20th century. But during the actual Middle Ages it seems to have been well known by any scholar of note that the earth was spherical, and have done in Western Europe since the theory was first arrived at (in Europe) by Ancient Greece. It never went away.
    Sure, the mass populace might have thought the earth was flat but then the mass populace were rather uneducated entirely to the point they wouldn't have had access to any information about anything at all. But the teachers and anyone who wanted to learn would likely have known that the earth was spherical.
    And given that you go on to talk about theories, you are clearly talking about scholars and not the mass populace.
    Please can you provide an example of a theory from the Middle Ages where flat-earth was a given?
    Just to correct you, you merely asserted it, you didn't show it to be the case.
    And what, pray tell, is "quantum determinism"? Are you going to redefine the term "determinism" to make sense of the phrase?
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