An ether model which gives the Standard Model of particle physics

Fortunately, real science does not have to care about what "sounds more professional".
I believe it cares about it more much than you would like to know. I think you have gotten very lucky using such language in a paper and still managing to get it to be published. The thing is that a lot of physicist get approached by cranks about aether, but few of them actually provide the mathematics to back it up. They probably just felt sorry for you, because it is a very popular misconceived notion...
 
I agree, and he also doesn't realize what it means when someone says, "in a sense" or "in this sense". Unfortunately, the ether or aether theory had to be thrown out, because it predicted the speed of light to be variable. In modern science, they now just call something that is "in a sense aether", Minkowski spacetime, which sound much more professional than making up your own version of ether...
Well, one can have a constant appearing speed of light with an aether theory , as Einstein knew and pointed out. However, Einstein's argument for rejecting such theories is that they rely on an unknowable preferred frame of reference to which no aspect of physics points.

Aether theories can only survive with a perfectly undetectable aether.

What Einstein meant with his Leyden address aether theory was a theory radically different from every previous aether theory, as Einstein points out in detial. The only sense in which GR is an aether theory is the sense in which one commits to the reality of spacetime itself as an entity of the theory. This is now a point of contention: there are arguments in favor of the idea that we can reduce all of GR to claims about the relative position of entities without any need for spacetime as a thing itself.
 
Apparently you didn't get the memo which said the reason why the ether theory was done away with about 100 years ago. The ether theory didn't predict the consistency of the speed of light. Basically, you just told me that you used a theory that predicts the speed of light is variable, and used it to show that the speed of light is constant. It makes absolutely no sense.
Of course I don't accept wrong claims, and I have told you about the error: The Lorentz ether, which makes exactly the same predictions as SR, because it is based on the same mathematics (the theory was initially simply named "Lorentz-Einstein theory") was not falsified 100 years ago. It predicts the same results as SR also about measurements of the speed of light too. It only uses slightly different names, related with a different interpretation. In the Lorentz interpretation, clocks and rulers are distorted if they move relative to the ether, in such a way, that measurements of the speed of light give always the same result.

But, as a consequence, there is also another notion of velocity, namely coordinate velocity. The Lorentz ether has preferred coordinates, in particular a preferred time coordinate. The coordinate speed of light is different from the speed of light measured with clocks and rulers, once these clocks and rulers are influenced by the ether. So, to say that speed of light is c if measured with clocks and rulers, but may be different if one uses the preferred coordinates, is a claim which makes sense.

In SR, and the initial Lorentz ether, the ether is static and homogeneous, and in the preferred coordinates the speed of light is also constant. But this is no longer the case in GR, and in my generalization of the Lorentz ether. There, the coordinate speed of light cannot be constant. But the speed of light, as measured in GR only locally, and with contemporaneity locally defined by Einstein synchronization, is nonetheless constant, and c.
Almost every book for laymen on theoretical physics will go into this topic which I have done a heavy amount of research on from works of Ph.D.'s. I would recommend you read at least a couple of descriptions of this part of our history so you don't end up just making a fool out of yourself.
I have my theory published in a peer-reviewed journal, so it is you who is making a fool of himself.
It would be very difficult for me to believe something this outlandish from you without any evidence considering your other viewpoints in physics.
Why should I care about what you find difficult to believe? For me, you are just a fool who, based on some misunderstood popular literature, thinks he is able to argue about scientific questions with a professional scientist.

I believe it cares about it more much than you would like to know. I think you have gotten very lucky using such language in a paper and still managing to get it to be published. The thing is that a lot of physicist get approached by cranks about aether, but few of them actually provide the mathematics to back it up. They probably just felt sorry for you, because it is a very popular misconceived notion...
LOL, you can be certain that no reviewer feels sorry if he gets a nonsense paper. I have reviewed some papers myself, and some of them rejected without any such feelings. If there is a paper using the e-word, the reviewers have, of course, strong prejudices. But at least for some of them the prejudice is not strong enough to reject it without any reason, and to give a review based on a very, very critical evaluation of the content. My papers have survived this. The mathematics given there - take a look at the paper, there is a lot of it - have been impressive enough.
 
Well, one can have a constant appearing speed of light with an aether theory , as Einstein knew and pointed out. However, Einstein's argument for rejecting such theories is that they rely on an unknowable preferred frame of reference to which no aspect of physics points.
Aether theories can only survive with a perfectly undetectable aether.
The ether model here is not really undetectable - all what we see are fields which describe properties of the ether. There is only a problem that the ether distorts clocks and rulers, which makes measuring absolute space and absolute time almost impossible. But in reality there is no such problem, because there is a global preferred system of coordinates - the CMBR frame. And there is also a whole class of preferred coordinates, which have the same main properties as the preferred coordinates of Newtonian theory, namely that the equations in these coordinates become much simpler: the harmonic coordinates. Above approaches nicely fit, because the spatial coordinates of the CMB frame are harmonic.

What Einstein meant with his Leyden address aether theory was a theory radically different from every previous aether theory, as Einstein points out in detial. The only sense in which GR is an aether theory is the sense in which one commits to the reality of spacetime itself as an entity of the theory. This is now a point of contention: there are arguments in favor of the idea that we can reduce all of GR to claims about the relative position of entities without any need for spacetime as a thing itself.

But he has not really shown it. Essentially, he has only claimed it: "But this aether may not be thought of as endowed with the quality characteristic of ponderable media, as consisting of parts which may be tracked through time. The idea of motion may not be applied to it."

But there is no such impossibility. Harmonic coordinates are nice candidates for preferred coordinates - they really simplify the Einstein equations in an essential way. But in harmonic coordinates there is a simple ether interpretation, with ether density and velocity defined by $$\rho=g^{00}\sqrt{-g}, \,v^i=g^{0i}/g^{00}$$, so that the harmonic conditions become continuity and Euler equations for the ether. For a medium with a density and a velocity, which fulfills a continuity equation, it is trivial to track points of it through time.
 
I have my theory published in a peer-reviewed journal, so it is you who is making a fool of himself.
My papers have survived this. The mathematics given there - take a look at the paper, there is a lot of it - have been impressive enough.

Yes granted your papers have been published in a reviewed journal and have survived. But as we have spoken about before there are many many peer reviewed papers all based on still speculative scenarios, and even some alternative propositions. But they remain just that, Interesting, but not accepted as the status quo.
Why should I care about what you find difficult to believe? For me, you are just a fool who, based on some misunderstood popular literature, thinks he is able to argue about scientific questions with a professional scientist.
True, obviously you are a professional scientist, but that alone does not make you a "correct" scientist, nor does it necessarily mean that us non professionals need to sit back in awe and wonderment....I mean you yourself have criticised respected professionals on this forum that happen to disagree with you. Then like the crank that calls himself god, you go on about popular literature in a derivitive fashion....Not realising that if your own paper would have been encompassed and at least on a par with GR, yours too may have been what you so often derisively refer to as "popular literature"
 
Yes granted your papers have been published in a reviewed journal and have survived. But as we have spoken about before there are many many peer reviewed papers all based on still speculative scenarios, and even some alternative propositions. But they remain just that, Interesting, but not accepted as the status quo.
Correct, a new theory is a theory, a hypothesis. There are no experiments yet which would allow to distinguish my theories from the established theories, GR and SM. I can claim strong advantages, like the possibility of quantization, compatibility with local energy and momentum conservation, causality and realism in comparison with GR, and a lot of explanatory power in comparison with the SM, but all this are theoretical advantages, and there is no decisive experiment yet which would make the difference.

True, obviously you are a professional scientist, but that alone does not make you a "correct" scientist, nor does it necessarily mean that us non professionals need to sit back in awe and wonderment....I mean you yourself have criticised respected professionals on this forum that happen to disagree with you. Then like the crank that calls himself god, you go on about popular literature in a derivitive fashion....Not realising that if your own paper would have been encompassed and at least on a par with GR, yours too may have been what you so often derisively refer to as "popular literature"
Of course, feel free to criticize, no problem. But if you criticize a professional, it would be better if your critique is an appropriate one as judged by professional criteria. If one does not even know that the Lorentz ether is equivalent to SR and not falsified by any experiment known 1905, this is not really a good basis to criticize working physicists.

But, ok, this is not even the point. Also not that he makes his statements in an authoritative tone, as if he would be the professional scientist and I would be the layman. This is simply general bad education today. The really unprofessional point is that after being corrected, informed about the existence of the Lorentz ether, he continues with the same claims.
 
Correct, a new theory is a theory, a hypothesis.
That's what I'm saying.

There are no experiments yet which would allow to distinguish my theories from the established theories, GR and SM. I can claim strong advantages, like the possibility of quantization, compatibility with local energy and momentum conservation, causality and realism in comparison with GR, and a lot of explanatory power in comparison with the SM, but all this are theoretical advantages, and there is no decisive experiment yet which would make the difference.
We only have your word for that.
And common sense tells me that if it was all you claimed, it would be held in some regard.
The fact that it is not, tells me all I need to know. Of course I rarely indulge in unsubstantiated conspiracy or stories either. This illustrates a bias in that regard.


Also not that he makes his statements in an authoritative tone, as if he would be the professional scientist and I would be the layman. This is simply general bad education today. The really unprofessional point is that after being corrected, informed about the existence of the Lorentz ether, he continues with the same claims.
I don't claim authority and never have, and likewise I do not recognise your authority as a so called freelance independent scientist, who differs from mainstream on certain issues, and has trouble criticising properly, other even more extreme crank views that are put on this forum with regards to science.

You have an hypothesis. It is your baby. Obviously that baby in your opinion, can never be wrong.
 
Yes granted your papers have been published in a reviewed journal and have survived. But as we have spoken about before there are many many peer reviewed papers all based on still speculative scenarios, and even some alternative propositions. But they remain just that, Interesting, but not accepted as the status quo.

True, obviously you are a professional scientist, but that alone does not make you a "correct" scientist, nor does it necessarily mean that us non professionals need to sit back in awe and wonderment....I mean you yourself have criticised respected professionals on this forum that happen to disagree with you. Then like the crank that calls himself god, you go on about popular literature in a derivitive fashion....Not realising that if your own paper would have been encompassed and at least on a par with GR, yours too may have been what you so often derisively refer to as "popular literature"
Scientists do research and publish the results. Other scientists can cite the work either in support of research or as a refutation of the work they're citing. Or just ignore because it's not very interesting.
 
Correct, a new theory is a theory, a hypothesis. There are no experiments yet which would allow to distinguish my theories from the established theories, GR and SM. I can claim strong advantages, like the possibility of quantization, compatibility with local energy and momentum conservation, causality and realism in comparison with GR, and a lot of explanatory power in comparison with the SM, but all this are theoretical advantages, and there is no decisive experiment yet which would make the difference.


Of course, feel free to criticize, no problem. But if you criticize a professional, it would be better if your critique is an appropriate one as judged by professional criteria. If one does not even know that the Lorentz ether is equivalent to SR and not falsified by any experiment known 1905, this is not really a good basis to criticize working physicists.

But, ok, this is not even the point. Also not that he makes his statements in an authoritative tone, as if he would be the professional scientist and I would be the layman. This is simply general bad education today. The really unprofessional point is that after being corrected, informed about the existence of the Lorentz ether, he continues with the same claims.
Requiring hidden variables of absolute time, space, and an undetectable ether makes your work a contrivance. Probably a good reason why it's been ignored. I think your Gravastar is theoretical nonsense. Even when Matt Visser was discussing the theoretical physics of Gravastars he didn't invoke any hidden variables so he isn't aware of your work or he doesn't think it's worth mentioning. That's been your advantage.
 
We only have your word for that.
And common sense tells me that if it was all you claimed, it would be held in some regard.
The fact that it is not, tells me all I need to know. Of course I rarely indulge in unsubstantiated conspiracy or stories either. This illustrates a bias in that regard.
This is a position I can understand. Because my common sense has told me similar things before, and even many times - first when I had found the ether interpretation, then when I have found the theory of gravity, when I have found the derivation of the Lagrangian from first principles. Then when I have found an ether-compatible variant for the Dirac equations for fermions, and then when I was able to incorporate the strong force into the model. And then when I have been able to incorporate the EM and weak force too. And, last but not least, when it was published. All these times there was the feeling that now I have reached a result strong enough to be published, and, then, to accepted at least as an interesting alternative theory.

But this was not what has happened in reality. The papers have been rejected, not because of errors, but because of minor objections which a reviewer almost always finds, and one time simply because the results will not be interesting for the readers of this journal. And, when it was published, it was ignored. Whenever I travel through the world and appear in a town with a university, I propose to make a talk, which is usually accepted, and the talk is usually nice, no serious objections, but nothing follows.

That the problem is not that much my theory, and not even the prejudice against the ether, became clear to me after reading the books against string theory. Woit has mentioned the reasons for the success of string theory. Which is not because it has reached big results, it hasn't, except in strange high dimensional mathematics. He has observed that many scientists do string theory without believing into string theory, because this is the main (only) game, and because this is where the jobs and grants are.
I don't claim authority and never have, and likewise I do not recognise your authority as a so called freelance independent scientist, who differs from mainstream on certain issues, and has trouble criticising properly, other even more extreme crank views that are put on this forum with regards to science.
In the past, I have spend more time criticizing cranks, I have simply given up to do this, because they usually appear uneducable. You may have seen in my answer to the river model http://ilja-schmelzer.de/papers/river.pdf that I think the ether interpretation of GR may be helpful to get rid of ether cranks - because it offers them an alternative, which is, on the one hand, compatible with modern science, but, on the other hand, is compatible with the classical ideas and concepts of absolute space and time. So, the crank could modify his position into a reasonable one, without giving up his fundamental beliefs about absolute space and time, causality and so on. His position would remain different from the mainstream position, but only in interpretational questions - questions which are important for him, but considered unimportant by many scientists. He would no longer have a reason to doubt nor the mathematics, nor the agreement with observation of modern gravity, so, he could give up anti-relativistic conspiracies against modern science in general.

But if this really works is an open question. I try sometimes a little bit, like http://www.sciforums.com/threads/gr...dington-experiment.153174/page-7#post-3345642 but not very hard.
 
Requiring hidden variables of absolute time, space, and an undetectable ether makes your work a contrivance. Probably a good reason why it's been ignored.
Probable. What has motivated me to propose such a hidden background was a quantization argument, http://arxiv.org/abs/arXiv:0909.1408 which I was unable to publish. So that it is simply unknown.
I think your Gravastar is theoretical nonsense. Even when Matt Visser was discussing the theoretical physics of Gravastars he didn't invoke any hidden variables so he isn't aware of your work or he doesn't think it's worth mentioning.
That he did not mention it does not mean that it isn't there.

The collapse to a gravastar should stop very very near to the black hole horizon formation. This "very very near" is because else one cannot use the extremal surface time dilation to explain that the surface seem invisible even if infalling matter hits the surface. And if gravastars are not a negligible accidental case irrelevant in reality, this should work for a large scale of different masses of the collapsing star.

But if one looks at the region near the horizon for black holes, there is, first of all, nothing special, nothing remarkable, not even a large curvature. So, if the equivalence principle holds, there is no mechanism to identify this region. Ok, for a BH of a given special mass, there is some special value of curvature, and this special value could be somehow used - but this would be a special solution which would not work for other masses.

What makes the region near the horizon special is the extremal time dilation. But this time dilation is something relative - relative to the far away observer. There is nothing locally observable named "time dilation". If an extremal time dilation becomes somehow physically important, I can see no way to do this without violating the Einstein Equivalence Principle.

In my theory the gravastar is not theoretical nonsense, but a natural, easy to understand consequence of the equations. Absolute time is part of the equations, so, there is a global notion of time dilation, and if this global time dilation becomes infinite, even an extremely small value of the parameter cannot prevent that time dilation, after reaching some extremal value, becomes important. And, if the related parameter $$\Upsilon$$ has the necessary sign, this term can stop the further collapse. If not, then there will be no gravastar.

If he is aware of my ether theories or not, or if he is aware that gravastars have to violate the EEP, is hard to find out. To publish a gravastar paper is much easier than an ether paper, but also not trivial, and only if you don't mention the e-word. This is well-known, a lot of physicists have recommended me to avoid the e-word if I try to publish my papers.
 
The ether model here is not really undetectable - all what we see are fields which describe properties of the ether. There is only a problem that the ether distorts clocks and rulers, which makes measuring absolute space and absolute time almost impossible.
Which meant that the ether is undetectable.

This has been a settled matter for over a century now. Your model, like all other ether models thst have the potential to fit the available observations, has an ether that one cannot detect through any currently available means.

So if you want to add an extra layer of metaphysics to your physics, then fine. But do not expect anyone to jump for joy that you have found a way to make physics more complicated without adding anything to any description of the world or making any calculation anywhere less complicated.

But in reality there is no such problem, because there is a global preferred system of coordinates - the CMBR frame.
Why do people so ignorant of cosmology always put this myth forward? It isn't even possible in cosmology to use the CMBR frame. At best, one can use an approximation to this frame. Regions of space vary from whatever the CMBR frame may be taken to be and their relative distance from this frame has no bearing on almost all of the physics that goes on in the region. The only effect that a difference from the CMBR frame might have is in the specifics of the background radiation that can be detected. To approximate out the reference frame, we first have to do a lot of physics ignoring it and then extrapolate.

The arrangement of matter and radiation into a detectable patter is how one extrapolates a CMBR frame. There is no way to detect it in the way physics works other than to look at the arrangement.
And there is also a whole class of preferred coordinates, which have the same main properties as the preferred coordinates of Newtonian theory, namely that the equations in these coordinates become much simpler: the harmonic coordinates. Above approaches nicely fit, because the spatial coordinates of the CMB frame are harmonic.
You might like such solutions, but this won't be of any help to anyone who needs to do physics without such a condition.
But he has not really shown it. Essentially, he has only claimed it: "But this aether may not be thought of as endowed with the quality characteristic of ponderable media, as consisting of parts which may be tracked through time. The idea of motion may not be applied to it."
Einstein did show that the ether he was talking about had these qualities (see his work). However, as decades of research has shown, we don't even need the little bit of the ether theory that Einstein was considering.

But there is no such impossibility. Harmonic coordinates are nice candidates for preferred coordinates - they really simplify the Einstein equations in an essential way.
Sure. If you want to ignore the idea that not all physical situations are such that harmonic coordinates are applicable, then many physicists with actual problems will have no use for your work. The CMBR frame is an abstraction, and corrections to that abstraction are a big part of contemporary cosmology.
But in harmonic coordinates there is a simple ether interpretation, with ether density and velocity defined by $$\rho=g^{00}\sqrt{-g}, \,v^i=g^{0i}/g^{00}$$, so that the harmonic conditions become continuity and Euler equations for the ether. For a medium with a density and a velocity, which fulfills a continuity equation, it is trivial to track points of it through time.
Sure, with an artificial restriction on possible physical states, it could be easier to do limited physics.

But no reasonable person should abandon real physics evidence, challenges, and solutions in order to add an additional layer of metaphysics that is, in principle, undetectable to physics.
 
Your model, like all other ether models thst have the potential to fit the available observations, has an ether that one cannot detect through any currently available means.
Yes, similar to the atomic models, which have been developed over a long time until the atomic structure has become detectable.
So if you want to add an extra layer of metaphysics to your physics, then fine. But do not expect anyone to jump for joy that you have found a way to make physics more complicated without adding anything to any description of the world or making any calculation anywhere less complicated.
There is no point at all where calculations become more complicated. Where I expect a jump of joy is for solving important open problems of modern physics, namely quantization of gravity, and explanation of the SM from a more fundamental theory.

Why do people so ignorant of cosmology always put this myth forward? It isn't even possible in cosmology to use the CMBR frame. At best, one can use an approximation to this frame.
I don't understand your point. Some attempts to make sense of it:

To name these coordinates "CMBR frame" is, of course, not optimal, because it suggests that is has something to do with SR inertial frames, but, of course, it should be clear from the context that I have in mind the system of coordinates used in the FLRW ansatz.

If you think the CMB coordinates are not well-defined: The FLRW ansatz is well-defined and they are often used in cosmology. Of course, this has its limitations, because it is a homogeneous ansatz, and one has large enough inhomogeneities. That one has to consider these inhomogeneities if one wants to do cosmology is the point made by Wiltshire. But even if one introduces inhomogeneities, this is important only in recent history, near BB time the universe was sufficiently homogeneous. So that the background radiation is also homogeneous enough everywhere, thus, to be in rest relative to CMBR is a well-defined notion everywhere. And, based on this preferred notion of rest, one can (by Einstein causality) define a preferred foliation.

Given that GR as well as my ether theory have covariant formulations, one can use every system of coordinates to make cosmology.

About harmonic coordinates as preferred:
You might like such solutions, but this won't be of any help to anyone who needs to do physics without such a condition. ... If you want to ignore the idea that not all physical situations are such that harmonic coordinates are applicable, then many physicists with actual problems will have no use for your work. ...Sure, with an artificial restriction on possible physical states, it could be easier to do limited physics.
Given that GR as well as my ether theory have covariant formulations, one can use every system of coordinates. Locally, every solution of above theories allows harmonic coordinates. Restrictions appear only if you want a global preferred system of coordinates. So, you can do all the physics you want in harmonic coordinates. If you prefer, for whatever reasons, other coordinates, you can do this, as in every well-defined physical theory.
Einstein did show that the ether he was talking about had these qualities (see his work). However, as decades of research has shown, we don't even need the little bit of the ether theory that Einstein was considering.
No, Einstein did not show this. If you think different, please quote him, with reference so that I can look at the details.
 
Why should I care about what you find difficult to believe? For me, you are just a fool who, based on some misunderstood popular literature, thinks he is able to argue about scientific questions with a professional scientist.
Let me get this straight. You are under some kind of impression that you have been discussing matters with professional scientist on these forums? Talk about the pot calling the kettle black...

I will admit, I have never heard of this "Lorentz ether". The work of Lorentz is mostly neglected in most popular publications. He is mostly just a foot note. Most of the time someone just mention's ether it is implied they are speaking about the same ether that was disproved to exist by Michelson & Morley. Which is surprising that you do not accept the results of their famous experiment, which is one of the most important experiments that lead to modern physics. That is a foolish move on your part.

Although, this preferred frame of reference also concerns me, which you speak of. Why do you believe there has to be a preferred frame of reference, and what influence or part of quantum theory do you think this preferred frame of reference is necessary for in order to describe the standard model accurately? I only ask, because it seems like it wouldn't be necessary to describe anything the standard model doesn't describe already, and it would seem like it would have to be eliminated from the theory in order for it to even work out.
 
Yes, similar to the atomic models, which have been developed over a long time until the atomic structure has become detectable.
Except that there was some evidence for an atomic model and on the nature of atoms, whereas there is absolutely no evidence about the nature of the ether. We know this because we can do all of physics without any ether whatsoever.
There is no point at all where calculations become more complicated. Where I expect a jump of joy is for solving important open problems of modern physics, namely quantization of gravity, and explanation of the SM from a more fundamental theory.
If you are able to do this, it would be great. As it stands now, you have only the commitment to metaphysics that has no physical influence and that does not improve any calculation anywhere. Indeed, you rule out large swaths of what we can do in physics today by restricting all spacetime physics to regions where one can use a harmonic solution.
I don't understand your point.
Undoubtedly. You seem to have latched on to a very basic understanding of cosmology and decide to run with what you have heard that might fit your metaphysical position.
Some attempts to make sense of it:

To name these coordinates "CMBR frame" is, of course, not optimal, because it suggests that is has something to do with SR inertial frames, but, of course, it should be clear from the context that I have in mind the system of coordinates used in the FLRW ansatz.
Sure. Yet you use this identification of the rough distribution of the matter and energy in the universe as a non sequitor argument for your particular metaphysical entity, the ether.
If you think the CMB coordinates are not well-defined: The FLRW ansatz is well-defined and they are often used in cosmology. Of course, this has its limitations, because it is a homogeneous ansatz, and one has large enough inhomogeneities. That one has to consider these inhomogeneities if one wants to do cosmology is the point made by Wiltshire. But even if one introduces inhomogeneities, this is important only in recent history, near BB time the universe was sufficiently homogeneous. So that the background radiation is also homogeneous enough everywhere, thus, to be in rest relative to CMBR is a well-defined notion everywhere. And, based on this preferred notion of rest, one can (by Einstein causality) define a preferred foliation.
There is a nice way to introduce foliation, but for many applications, there are other preferred metrics to use. You have to establish that there is some sort of special physical relationship between the rough distribution of matter and energy in the universe and fundamental physics. So far, there is absolutely no reason to suppose this.
No, Einstein did not show this. If you think different, please quote him, with reference so that I can look at the details.
I can only point you to the very address cited, everything he ever wrote on relativity, and pretty much every textbook on the subject.
 
Most of the time someone just mention's ether it is implied they are speaking about the same ether that was disproved to exist by Michelson & Morley. Which is surprising that you do not accept the results of their famous experiment, which is one of the most important experiments that lead to modern physics. That is a foolish move on your part.
Please stop such defamatory claims. Where I have said that I do not accept the results of Michelson & Morley? There is no reason to do this, because the results of Michelson & Morley are exactly those predicted as by the Lorentz ether, as by my own ether theory. What could motivate me not to accept an experiment which has exactly the results predicted by my own theory?
Why do you believe there has to be a preferred frame of reference, and what influence or part of quantum theory do you think this preferred frame of reference is necessary for in order to describe the standard model accurately? I only ask, because it seems like it wouldn't be necessary to describe anything the standard model doesn't describe already, and it would seem like it would have to be eliminated from the theory in order for it to even work out.

One thought experiment which shows that a quantum theory of gravity needs a background is described here: http://arxiv.org/abs/0909.1408 To understand this, you need some basic understanding of the double slit experiment: You see an interference pattern if the slit remains unknown, but, if you measure which slit is used by the particle, the interference pattern disappears. To measure the position, you can, in principle, use the gravitational field of the particle, and test it with some test particle. If the influence of the gravitational field is strong enough to make a difference, the position is measured, and no interference picture appears. If not, the test particle will be on the same place independent on the slit used by the particle, thus, measuring the position of the test particle does not tell us anything about which slit was used. Now we translate this to the language of quantum gravity, with a superposition of the gravitational fields. If a massive particle goes through different slits, the gravitational fields will be different. We have the trajectories of the test particle in the two gravitational fields. Then, we can measure if there is an interference picture. If not, then the test particle is at the same place. So, we can measure if the particle is at the same place, for different gravitational fields. But this is impossible if there is no preferred background. In this case, you have two solutions, and the point where the test particle is, on above solutions. But there is no way to tell which point on one solution is the same point as one on the other solution. You cannot simply identify the same point on above solutions by having the same coordinates, because you can change the coordinates on above solutions independently.

This may be too complicate for you, but this consideration shows me that there cannot be any quantum theory of gravity without this additional background. This problem of quantum gravity has nothing to do with the SM, which is already a quantum theory, and which has a fixed background, at least all what we need from a fixed background for this problem, namely the Minkowski space.

The other point where the hidden background is necessary is the violation of Bell's inequality. There is Reichenbach's common cause principle: Every correlation has a causal explanation, and a correlation between A and B can have three causal explanations: A->B, B->A, and some common cause C with C->A, C->B. Now, the violation of Bell's inequality allows to exclude a common cause. So, two explanations remain, A->B or B->A. Above require faster than light hidden causal influences. Then, the preferred (and similarly hidden) preferred time is the time coordinate with the property that if t(A)>t(B) then A->B is forbidden - there is no causal influence into the past. The alternative here is to give up causality, Reichenbach's common cause principle, and, as a consequence, the search for causal explanations of observed correlations.

What is missed in the SM is an explanation why we have the fields which we have. The SM postulates them, without giving any explanation. But the explanation I have found does not have a relativistic symmetry on its fundamental level, this symmetry appears only in the large distance, continuous approximation. But if relativistic symmetry is only an approximation, the fundamental theory gets a preferred frame almost automatically.
 
I will probably be hitting myself over my own head giving you this information, but I can provide a geometric proof that shows that Minkowski spacetime can give the correct time dilation in the Standard Model with 100% accuracy, which has no preferred frame of reference and has a coordinate speed of light that is always exactly the speed of light.

The light clock example could be considered to be equivalent to Minkowski spacetime. The observer in motion measures the beam to travel straight up and down with their own time (t'), and the observer at rest measures the distance traveled of the object using their time (t) and the beam of light to travel at an angle with their own time (t). This can be then plugged into Pythagorean's Theorem and solved for time.

$$(ct')^2+(vt)^2=(ct)^2$$

$$c^2 t'^2+v^2t^2=c^2t^2$$ Distribute the square.

$$c^2t'^2=c^2t^2-v^2t^2$$ Subtract both sides by $$v^2t^2$$.

$$c^2t'^2=c^2t^2(1-\frac{v^2}{c^2})$$ Factor out $$ c^2t^2$$ out of the entire right side of the equation.

$$t'^2=t^2(1-\frac{v^2}{c^2})$$ Divide both sides of the equation by $$c^2$$

$$t'=t\sqrt{1 - \frac{v^2}{c^2}}$$ Take the square root of both sides.

Then as you can see, the dilated time in Minkowski spacetime is the same as the proper time. This is an age old question that hasn't been able to be solved by anyone else but me in the past 100 years since the theory of relativity was first published. The more commonly known solution makes the mistake of miss-assigning the time variables. An observer at rest would never use their own time to measure the beam traveling straight up and down on board of a moving object. My proof assumes that the moving object measures this action with their own clock time prime. Therefore, this proof would show that Minkowski spacetime gives the correct equation for time dilation used in the Standard Model.
 
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Except that there was some evidence for an atomic model and on the nature of atoms, whereas there is absolutely no evidence about the nature of the ether. We know this because we can do all of physics without any ether whatsoever.
There was no evidence, except explanatory power. The atomic model was able to explain things we have observed. But all the math could have been done also without these explanations. Say, temperature T or pressure p may be simply some fields, and the equations of thermodynamics simply some field theory. Without any fundamental explanation what temperature is - it is some field, that's all. Mach has argued very long time, up to the observation of atomic effects, that one can do all of physics without any atoms whatsoever.

If you are able to do this, it would be great. As it stands now, you have only the commitment to metaphysics that has no physical influence and that does not improve any calculation anywhere. Indeed, you rule out large swaths of what we can do in physics today by restricting all spacetime physics to regions where one can use a harmonic solution.
What is excluded by the ether interpretation are solutions with nontrivial topology and with closed causal loops. But, sorry, up to now you cannot do any real physics with nontrivial topology or with closed causal loops. These are up to now only purely theoretical speculations.

An explanation of the SM has been already given in my ether model. And how to quantize an ether theory is well-known, because it is a standard condensed matter theory, and how to quantize them is well-known. And I have not yet heard reasonable objections.
Sure. Yet you use this identification of the rough distribution of the matter and energy in the universe as a non sequitor argument for your particular metaphysical entity, the ether.
No, it is not an argument, it is a nice natural candidate for a set of preferred coordinates. Which, moreover, nicely corresponds to my theoretical preference for harmonic coordinates: For the flat FLRW solution, the spatial coordinates are already harmonic.
There is a nice way to introduce foliation, but for many applications, there are other preferred metrics to use.
I guess you mean preferred coordinates (not metrics)? Anyway, it sounds strange, I do not remember to have seen FLRW universes used in other coordinates then in the usual ansatz.
You have to establish that there is some sort of special physical relationship between the rough distribution of matter and energy in the universe and fundamental physics. So far, there is absolutely no reason to suppose this.
Not really. A homogeneous universe is preferred by Ockham's razor, an approximately homogeneous the next best choice. The ether theory itself has a preferred frame, which automatically defines some physical influence of the background on the ether, and that such an influence can lead to an almost homogeneous initial distribution is sufficiently plausible.
I can only point you to the very address cited, everything he ever wrote on relativity, and pretty much every textbook on the subject.
This is nothing. If Einstein has proven something, he has proven it in a particular paper, with some particular theorem, and you would have the possibility to give this evidence. I claim he has not proven this, which is something I cannot prove, because it is impossible in principle to prove such a non-existence. You have the burden of proof. Once you cannot give the reference to the proof of Einstein, the issue is settled in favour of my position.
 
One thought experiment which shows that a quantum theory of gravity needs a background is described here: http://arxiv.org/abs/0909.1408 To understand this, you need some basic understanding of the double slit experiment: You see an interference pattern if the slit remains unknown, but, if you measure which slit is used by the particle, the interference pattern disappears. To measure the position, you can, in principle, use the gravitational field of the particle, and test it with some test particle. If the influence of the gravitational field is strong enough to make a difference, the position is measured, and no interference picture appears. If not, the test particle will be on the same place independent on the slit used by the particle, thus, measuring the position of the test particle does not tell us anything about which slit was used. Now we translate this to the language of quantum gravity, with a superposition of the gravitational fields. If a massive particle goes through different slits, the gravitational fields will be different. We have the trajectories of the test particle in the two gravitational fields. Then, we can measure if there is an interference picture. If not, then the test particle is at the same place. So, we can measure if the particle is at the same place, for different gravitational fields. But this is impossible if there is no preferred background. In this case, you have two solutions, and the point where the test particle is, on above solutions. But there is no way to tell which point on one solution is the same point as one on the other solution. You cannot simply identify the same point on above solutions by having the same coordinates, because you can change the coordinates on above solutions independently.

This may be too complicate for you, but this consideration shows me that there cannot be any quantum theory of gravity without this additional background. This problem of quantum gravity has nothing to do with the SM, which is already a quantum theory, and which has a fixed background, at least all what we need from a fixed background for this problem, namely the Minkowski space.

The other point where the hidden background is necessary is the violation of Bell's inequality. There is Reichenbach's common cause principle: Every correlation has a causal explanation, and a correlation between A and B can have three causal explanations: A->B, B->A, and some common cause C with C->A, C->B. Now, the violation of Bell's inequality allows to exclude a common cause. So, two explanations remain, A->B or B->A. Above require faster than light hidden causal influences. Then, the preferred (and similarly hidden) preferred time is the time coordinate with the property that if t(A)>t(B) then A->B is forbidden - there is no causal influence into the past. The alternative here is to give up causality, Reichenbach's common cause principle, and, as a consequence, the search for causal explanations of observed correlations.

What is missed in the SM is an explanation why we have the fields which we have. The SM postulates them, without giving any explanation. But the explanation I have found does not have a relativistic symmetry on its fundamental level, this symmetry appears only in the large distance, continuous approximation. But if relativistic symmetry is only an approximation, the fundamental theory gets a preferred frame almost automatically.
I really see no such need for there to be preferred frames of references in order to account for divergence. Richard Feynman discovered that this could be described by taking into account all the possible vectors which a particle could take, and the average of all these is where a particle would most likely be. I tend to agree with Richard Feynman. I also am a firm believer in the Copenhagen Interpretation, and I fail to see how adding a preferred frame could account for this. I don't see how particles could be described as accurately as Richard Feynman described them using every possibility by only using a lesser number of possibilities. Suffice to say, I think this would prevent your theory from ever being able to be 100% completely accurate to the Standard Model.

I believe that the Copenhagen Interpretation is correct because of the Special Theory of Relativity, and that is why I am partly so skeptical of your theory. It is something I will just call the Layman Hypothesis, pun intended. Say a particle is traveling the speed of light, and it assumes that it is at rest. If it assumes it is at rest, then every other frame of reference will be seen to travel the speed of light, including Minkowski spacetime itself. Then Minkowski Spacetime would contract to zero and have no time. Then from the frame of reference of the particle traveling the speed of light, it would be at every location it ever was, will be, and is (at the same time). Therefore, the only way to be able to deal with this zero or "non-Minkowski spacetime" (which would be grossly similar to a phase space) would be to calculate every possible path a particle could travel and every location and take the average. Then I believe that Richard Feynman may have unwittingly discovered the only way to deal with relativistic particles accurately which travel the speed of light. Then the Copenhagen Interpretation would be a literal interpretation of quantum behavior. Problem solved, you can stop worrying about how to explain quantum mechanics now...
 
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I really see no such need for there to be preferred frames of references in order to account for divergence. Richard Feynman discovered that this could be described by taking into account all the possible vectors which a particle could take, and the average of all these is where a particle would most likely be. I tend to agree with Richard Feynman. I also am a firm believer in the Copenhagen Interpretation, and I fail to see how adding a preferred frame could account for this. I don't see how particles could be described as accurately as Richard Feynman described them using every possibility by only using a lesser number of possibilities. Suffice to say, I think this would prevent your theory from ever being able to be 100% completely accurate to the Standard Model.

I believe that the Copenhagen Interpretation is correct because of the Special Theory of Relativity, and that is why I am partly so skeptical of your theory. It is something I will just call the Layman Hypothesis, pun intended. Say a particle is traveling the speed of light, and it assumes that it is at rest. If it assumes it is at rest, then every other frame of reference will be seen to travel the speed of light, including Minkowski spacetime itself. Then Minkowski Spacetime would contract to zero and have no time. Then from the frame of reference of the particle traveling the speed of light, it would be at every location it ever was, will be, and is (at the same time). Therefore, the only way to be able to deal with this zero or "non-Minkowski spacetime" (which would be grossly similar to a phase space) would be to calculate every possible path a particle could travel and every location and take the average. Then I believe that Richard Feynman may have unwittingly discovered the only way to deal with relativistic particles accurately which travel the speed of light. Then the Copenhagen Interpretation would be a literal interpretation of quantum behavior. Problem solved, you can stop worrying about how to explain quantum mechanics now...

That's rather an amusing idea, actually. I hadn't thought of that.
 
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