Read the first paragraph of section 2 of his paper. He states his equation for gravitational force: $$F(t)=\frac{GMm}{(r+vt)^2}$$. The $$vt$$ term grows without bound and his gravitational force falls towards zero over time. He then uses some bizarre process to get rid of the time dependence (not make it implicit, get rid of it). That must be illegitimate because the force is either time dependent or it's not, but he has it being both. And the model is inconsistent in other ways. He claims that his "gravitational waves" propagate at c, but has his gravitational force point through the ellipse focus. That is the gravitational force is directed at where the Sun

*currently* is and not where it

*was* when the "gravitational waves" now arriving at Mercury left the Sun. So he's assuming a finite speed in order to get his "Doppler" factor and simultaneously assuming an infinite speed to get his force direction.

That's all I bothered to read. So what do

*you* think the comments of anyone who knew what they were talking about were?

I bet he used an Euler integrator in his simulation too.

Bonus: he could correct the inconsistent propagation speeds so that the force points at where the Sun was and not where it is. If he does he'll run into the same problem real physicists ran into when they tried this kind of fix to Newtonian gravity over a century ago. Orbits are unstable on time scales of a century or so and the solar system shouldn't exist (

https://arxiv.org/abs/gr-qc/9909087).