OK
some claim that the Texas actions are based on article 1 section 10 of the Us constitution:
"No State shall enter into any Treaty, Alliance, or Confederation; grant
Letters of Marque and
Reprisal; coin Money; emit
Bills of Credit; make any Thing but gold and silver Coin a Tender in Payment of Debts; pass any Bill of
Attainder,
ex post facto Law, or Law impairing the Obligation of Contracts, or grant any
Title of Nobility.
No State shall, without the Consent of the Congress, lay any
Imposts or Duties on Imports or Exports, except what may be absolutely necessary for executing
it's inspection Laws: and the net Produce of all Duties and
Imposts, laid by any State on Imports or Exports, shall be for the Use of the Treasury of the United States; and all such Laws shall be subject to the Revision and
Controul of the Congress.
No State shall, without the Consent of Congress, lay any duty of Tonnage, keep Troops, or Ships of War in time of Peace, enter into any Agreement or Compact with another State, or with a foreign Power,
or engage in War, unless actually invaded, or in such imminent Danger as will not admit of delay."
meanwhile
governor abbot has stated that he relies on article 4 section 4 of the constitution:
"The United States shall guarantee to every State in this Union a Republican Form of Government,
and shall protect each of them against Invasion; and on Application of the Legislature, or of the Executive (when the Legislature cannot be convened) against domestic Violence."
Ok the words are slightly different
so
does this difference matter?