ThazzarBaal
Registered Senior Member
I was curious so I have pasted John Chapter 8 to see if we get an inkling.
Bearing in mind this was originally written in Greek so something may be lost.
First point prostitute/harlot is not mentioned.
Mary Magdalene is not mentioned either.
“was taken in adultery, in the very act.” Is the key phrase as there is debate as to what adultery means. We know today but in first century Palestine?
“adultery consists of sexual intercourse between a man and a married woman who is not his lawful wife”
Also “according to the Hebrew Bible, adultery is not committed if the female participant is unmarried (unless she is betrothed to be married[3]), while the marital status of the male participant is irrelevant (he himself could be married or unmarried to another woman).”
So, from that, the woman must be married?
[3] And the scribes and Pharisees brought unto him a woman taken in adultery; and when they had set her in the midst,
[4] They say unto him, Master, this woman was taken in adultery, in the very act.
[5] Now Moses in the law commanded us, that such should be stoned: but what sayest thou?
[6] This they said, tempting him, that they might have to accuse him. But Jesus stooped down, and with his finger wrote on the ground, as though he heard them not.
[7] So when they continued asking him, he lifted up himself, and said unto them, He that is without sin among you, let him first cast a stone at her.
[8] And again he stooped down, and wrote on the ground.
[9] And they which heard it, being convicted by their own conscience, went out one by one, beginning at the eldest, even unto the last: and Jesus was left alone, and the woman standing in the midst.
[10] When Jesus had lifted up himself, and saw none but the woman, he said unto her, Woman, where are those thine accusers? hath no man condemned thee?
[11] She said, No man, Lord. And Jesus said unto her, Neither do I condemn thee: go, and sin no more
So only married woman commit adultery?