Wave function

Discussion in 'Physics & Math' started by Ethernos 1997, Oct 18, 2020 at 4:47 AM.

  1. Ethernos 1997 Registered Senior Member

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    How do u assign wave function to something like particle or earth itself? Could u write it down?
     
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  3. exchemist Valued Senior Member

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    I'm rusty on this stuff but it will go something like this (a real physicist may care to correct me if necessary

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    ):-

    The wave function, ψ, is a solution to Schrödinger's equation, which has the general form -ih/2π . ∂/∂t ψ = Hψ. In this equation h is Planck's constant and H is the Hamiltonian operator for the system under consideration. This normally has the form -h²/8π²m. ∇² + V, in which V is the potential.

    For stable bound states H is not time-dependent and then one can use the time-independent version of Schrödinger's equation which is Hψ = Eψ, in which E is the energy of the state.

    So there are two issues to deal with before you can write down the wavefunction of a system. The first is to understand the dynamics of the system in question so that you can cast the Hamiltonian into the correct form, and the second is to solve the resulting partial differential equation.

    It is far from trivial to do this. However, almost all of QM avoids actually working these wave function out algebraically, since ψ has certain properties which follow from the nature of the wave equation that they are the solution to. So normally one deals with the equation and the known properties of its solutions, without ever needing to calculate these solutions explicitly.

    I suppose all this is a long way of answering "no" to your question.

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  5. foghorn Registered Senior Member

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    I got myself mixed up thinking about this.

    If given a De Broglie wavelength in one frame, would a Lorentz transformation be used to find that wavelength in another frame? Please say yes, Or I will become more confused.
     
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  7. Ethernos 1997 Registered Senior Member

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    Idk much either but from gr perspective i would hope so.
     
  8. Michael 345 New year. PRESENT is 70 years old Valued Senior Member

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    Does a mixed up foghorn sound off for drizzling rain?

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  9. foghorn Registered Senior Member

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    I'm hoping it is that simple too.

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  10. Ethernos 1997 Registered Senior Member

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    I hope it works out for you.
     
  11. Ethernos 1997 Registered Senior Member

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    Assign a wave function to wave length and collapse it by increasing momentum.
     
  12. exchemist Valued Senior Member

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    This is gibberish. But you knew that

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    .
     
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  13. exchemist Valued Senior Member

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    I know nothing about applying relativity to QM, but as the de Broglie wavelength of an object is inversely proportion to its momentum, I presume that however the momentum transforms will tell you how the wavelength transforms.

    Again, we may need to wait for a real physicist - if there are any left. James seems not to be around.
     
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  14. exchemist Valued Senior Member

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    Or for a brain fart, perhaps?
     
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  15. Ethernos 1997 Registered Senior Member

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    take a spacetime as a length of x and the time taken to cover it is T. When the mass bends or stretch spacetime the x as x+dx. The time taken is still T. So when x proportional to T. Constant is velocity and when x+dx is proptional to T. The constant is acceleration. So what i am trying to imply which may be wrong is when the spacetime stretch there is generation of acceleration. So taking the spacetime bend around a mass it creates an acceleration field around mass. This also implies that the time flows at a constant rate.
     
  16. exchemist Valued Senior Member

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    This has nothing to do with wave functions.
     
  17. Michael 345 New year. PRESENT is 70 years old Valued Senior Member

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    Belly burp upwards?

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  18. exchemist Valued Senior Member

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    Well you're the one with medical training. I wouldn't know.

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