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A restatement of the principle of (special) relativity:

Inertial observers must correlate their observations by means of the Lorentz transformation, and all physical quantities must transform from one inertial system to another in such a way that the expression of the physical laws is the same for all inertial observers.

The variation of mass with velocity of a particle moving relative to an observer is given by the equation: $$ m\; =\; \frac {m_0} {\sqrt {1\; -\; v^2/c^2} $$. Rest mass is clearly the value of m when v = 0.
 
A restatement of the principle of (special) relativity:

Inertial observers must correlate their observations by means of the Lorentz transformation, and all physical quantities must transform from one inertial system to another in such a way that the expression of the physical laws is the same for all inertial observers.

The variation of mass with velocity of a particle moving relative to an observer is given by the equation: $$ m\; =\; \frac {m_0} {\sqrt {1\; -\; v^2/c^2} $$. Rest mass is clearly the value of m when v = 0.

I don't know where exactly that reference is from, so it is hJard to put it into context.

Here is a bit more from the reference I gave earlier. Really, most of this is covered in the first page or two of the six page paper.

The Concept of Mass
This choice is caused by the confusing terminology widely used in the popular science literature and in many textbooks. According to this terminology the body at rest has a "proper mass" or "rest mass" m moving with velocity v has "relativistic mass" or "mass" m, given by, $$m = E/c^2 = \frac{m_o}{\sqrt{1-v^2/c^2}}$$

As I will show, this terminology had some historical justification at the beginning of our century, but it has no rational justification today. When doing relativistic physics (and often when teaching relativistic physics), particle physicists use only the term "mass." According to this rational terminology the terms "rest mass" and "relativistic mass" are redundant and misleading. There is only one mass in physics, m, which does not depend on the reference frame. As soon as you reject the "relativistic mass" there is no need to call the other mass the "rest mass" and to mark it with the index O.

If you look at the equation as presented by Okun, $$m = E/c^2 = \frac{m_o}{\sqrt{1-v^2/c^2}}$$, the first part $$m = E/c^2$$ is the same as $$E = mc^2$$. The last section $$\frac{m_o}{\sqrt{1-v^2/c^2}}$$ then includes a velocity, which then associates it with momentum rather than a direct description of mass.

Just take a look at the first two pages of the paper. Okun does a good job of explaining the issue.

P.S. The Lorentz transformations in SR play a role in being able to project what things look like from differing inertial frames of reference. That is if you measure the impact of a bullet, F = mv in one frame you can figure out what its mass is in its rest frame. It does not say that it gains mass with velocity.
 
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OnlyMe said:
P.S. The Lorentz transformations in SR play a role in being able to project what things look like from differing inertial frames of reference. That is if you measure the impact of a bullet, F = mv in one frame you can figure out what its mass is in its rest frame. It does not say that it gains mass with velocity.
So why does Okun use the Lorentz transform to calculate mass?

OnlyMe said:
If you look at the equation as presented by Okun, $$m = E/c^2 = \frac{m_o}{\sqrt{1-v^2/c^2}}$$, the first part $$m = E/c^2$$ is the same as $$E = mc^2$$. The last section $$\frac{m_o}{\sqrt{1-v^2/c^2}}$$ then includes a velocity, which then associates it with momentum rather than a direct description of mass.
I mean, if you want momentum instead of "relativistic mass", just use: $$ mv = \frac{m_o v}{\sqrt{1-v^2/c^2}}$$.


P.S. I think you made a mistake with F = mv, too. And your comment about how the Lorentz factor "includes a velocity", has nothing to do with momentum.
 
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Following three cases can solve this confusion about 'relativistic-mass' .

Case1 : " Consider , there is only space and no mass . " .

In this case , the space will remain in its inertia .


Case2 : " Put one mass m1 in this space of case1 . " .

In this case , m1 will follow Newton's 1st Law of Motion but can not exceed relativistic speed , otherwise it will cause frame-dragging .


Case3 : " Put another mass m2 in the space of case2 . " .

In this case , m1 can exceed relativistic speed and travel towards m2 . Here relativistic mass of m1 , due to its relativistic speed is because of m2 . Force generated due m2 can overcome frame dragging effect caused by relativistic speed of m1 .



So , relativistic mass and rest mass are different . This difference is due over-coming the frame-dragging effect .
 
OnlyMe said:
P.S. The Lorentz transformations in SR play a role in being able to project what things look like from differing inertial frames of reference. That is if you measure the impact of a bullet, F = mv in one frame you can figure out what its mass is in its rest frame. It does not say that it gains mass with velocity.

So why does Okun use the Lorentz transform to calculate mass?

Here is the quote from Okun, again...

The Concept of Mass
This choice is caused by the confusing terminology widely used in the popular science literature and in many textbooks. According to this terminology the body at rest has a "proper mass" or "rest mass" m moving with velocity v has "relativistic mass" or "mass" m, given by, $$m = E/c^2 = \frac{m_o}{\sqrt{1-v^2/c^2}}$$

As I will show, this terminology had some historical justification at the beginning of our century, but it has no rational justification today. When doing relativistic physics (and often when teaching relativistic physics), particle physicists use only the term "mass." According to this rational terminology the terms "rest mass" and "relativistic mass" are redundant and misleading. There is only one mass in physics, m, which does not depend on the reference frame. As soon as you reject the "relativistic mass" there is no need to call the other mass the "rest mass" and to mark it with the index O.

In the first part of the quote he identifies, the form of the equation quoted, as "confusing terminology widely used in the popular science literature and in many textbooks."

He then goes on to explain, in the next sentence, what that form of the equation is describing, which is what creates the confusion. By incorporating an object's (he uses the word "body"), velocity and mass (rest mass), mass takes on two separate definitions. Okun uses $$m$$, in this equation to indicate "relativistic mass", which he is arguing against, and $$m_o$$ to indicate an object's frame invariant mass, also known historically as, "proper mass" and/or "rest mass". Einstein used $$M$$ for "relativistic mass" and $$m$$ for mass. Here Okun, is explaining the misuse and origin of the confusion, not his own or Einstein's definition of $$m$$, in the equation, $$E = mc^2$$.

In the final paragraph of the above quote, he sets out his intention to explain why, the concept of relativistic mass should be discarded and only a single definition and term for mass be used.

Later in the paper, Okun does show how $$E = mc^2$$, can be incorporated in a description of the momentum of both a massive object and massless photon. He does use the Lorentz factor in doing so, but I think that Trippy put it a little more clearly in Post 231.

$$E=mc^2$$ is only true for a stationary object.

For a fast bullet, the correct equation is:
$$E=\sqrt{(mc^2)^2+(pc)^2}$$
Which as you can see for a stationary object (p=0) boils down to:
$$E=mc^2$$

And for a photon boils down to:
$$E=pc$$

While Trippy begins by describing $$E = mc^2$$ as a description of the mass of a stationary object only, explaining, in a later post, that he assumes E to always denote total mass, it is my contention that that where ever it appears in an equation, $$mc^2$$ always denotes the energy (E) associated with the "rest mass" or "proper mass", of an object at rest or in motion. (I believe that this is consistent with both Einstein and what Okun was trying to explain.)

OnlyMe said:
If you look at the equation as presented by Okun, $$m = E/c^2 = \frac{m_o}{\sqrt{1-v^2/c^2}}$$, the first part $$m = E/c^2$$ is the same as $$E = mc^2$$. The last section $$\frac{m_o}{\sqrt{1-v^2/c^2}}$$ then includes a velocity, which then associates it with momentum rather than a direct description of mass.

I mean, if you want momentum instead of "relativistic mass", just use: $$ mv = \frac{m_o v}{\sqrt{1-v^2/c^2}}$$.

P.S. I think you made a mistake with F = mv, too. And your comment about how the Lorentz factor "includes a velocity", has nothing to do with momentum.

The whole point has been to discard the idea of using $$m$$ and $$m_o$$.., to essentially discard the description of momentum as, "relativistic mass" and accept a single definition for mass.

As to the F = mv issue, if you measure the momentum of a bullet from a frame of reference at rest relative to the bullet's velocity, as F (force), that force is the product of the bullet's frame invariant mass and its velocity relative to the frame of reference from which the F (force) is measured. It is the same as p = mv, in this case. Force is a more general term, but it includes the more specific definition consistent with momentum.

Once the concept of mass is accepted as frame invariant, there are some issues that seem to come up relative to the Lorentz factor, inertia and mass, when relativistic velocities are also, involved... An apparent conflict with SR, but this is an issue that cannot really be addressed, until some consensus definition of mass, is established.
 
OnlyMe said:
In the final paragraph of the above quote, he sets out his intention to explain why, the concept of relativistic mass should be discarded and only a single definition and term for mass be used.
I'm not sure I follow either your explanation of Okun's intention, or what Okun is really saying.

Is he saying we should rewrite the way mass and momentum are Lorentz transformed, or use some other transform? It's just that this:
Once the concept of mass is accepted as frame invariant, there are some issues that seem to come up relative to the Lorentz factor, inertia and mass, when relativistic velocities are also, involved... An apparent conflict with SR, but this is an issue that cannot really be addressed, until some consensus definition of mass, is established.
...makes me think that's what you think he's saying.
So he's saying the Lorentz transform of a "single kind of mass" needs to be reformulated?

I still can't see what the problem is. What is the difference between a mass with a zero velocity and a mass with a high velocity? Is Okun saying there is no difference? If he is, does he also mean velocity is redundant?
 
I'm not sure I follow either your explanation of Okun's intention, or what Okun is really saying.

Is he saying we should rewrite the way mass and momentum are Lorentz transformed, or use some other transform? It's just that this: ...makes me think that's what you think he's saying.
So he's saying the Lorentz transform of a "single kind of mass" needs to be reformulated?

I still can't see what the problem is. What is the difference between a mass with a zero velocity and a mass with a high velocity? Is Okun saying there is no difference? If he is, does he also mean velocity is redundant?

Okun and Einstein were saying the same thing, there is only one mass, the frame invariant mass, sometimes called "rest mass" or " proper mass".

The concept of relativistic mass is not a description of mass that is consistent with experience.., today. It would be better described as momentum and or total energy.

As far as your question, "What is the difference between a mass with a zero velocity and a mass with a high velocity?", is concerned; The mass of a moving object is no different than the mass of the same object at rest. The difference between the two lies in their total energy — a product of mass and velocity, also called momentum.

Relativistic mass is momentum not mass and to continually refer to it as relativistic mass only creates confusion.
 
OnlyMe said:
Relativistic mass is momentum not mass and to continually refer to it as relativistic mass only creates confusion.
I think that's a somewhat confused description of momentum.

Look, an object with a rest mass has a greater energy when it has a nonzero velocity.
Perhaps it should be called "relativistic energy". Mass and energy are equivalent, but mass and momentum can't ever be equivalent and you seem to be claiming they can be.

Momentum, as you also point out, is a product of mass and velocity. How do you get "mass is momentum" out of it?

The total kinetic energy of a moving mass varies with velocity. Lorentz transforming the mass gives a non-invariant result. Therefore claiming: "There is only one mass, the frame invariant mass", is inaccurate.
 
I think that's a somewhat confused description of momentum.

Look, an object with a rest mass has a greater energy when it has a nonzero velocity.
Perhaps it should be called "relativistic energy". Mass and energy are equivalent, but mass and momentum can't ever be equivalent and you seem to be claiming they can be.

Momentum, as you also point out, is a product of mass and velocity. How do you get "mass is momentum" out of it?

The total kinetic energy of a moving mass varies with velocity. Lorentz transforming the mass gives a non-invariant result. Therefore claiming: "There is only one mass, the frame invariant mass", is inaccurate.
It certainly needs sorting for it has got me confused.
Rest mass is easy. Kinetic energy is easy Momentum is easy but when velocities get up the relationship between energy applied and resultant change in velocity breaks down. I had previously believed this was because the mass that was being accelerated was increasing.
This mass would then disappear as the object slowed again. :)
 
I think that's a somewhat confused description of momentum.

Look, an object with a rest mass has a greater energy when it has a nonzero velocity.
Perhaps it should be called "relativistic energy". Mass and energy are equivalent, but mass and momentum can't ever be equivalent and you seem to be claiming they can be.

Mass and energy are not equivalent. If they were we would not need both terms to define experience. Mass can be thought of as a specialized expression of energy but that does not make it energy.

Momentum, as you also point out, is a product of mass and velocity. How do you get "mass is momentum" out of it?

I never said mass was momentum.., I said that momentum was a product of mass and velocity.

The total kinetic energy of a moving mass varies with velocity. Lorentz transforming the mass gives a non-invariant result. Therefore claiming: "There is only one mass, the frame invariant mass", is inaccurate.

Why would you ever run a Lorentz transformation on mass? The Lorentz transformation arises from the effect of velocity on both an object's length and time dilation.

This thread began with gravity... Think about gravity and mass. When a mass is moving with any velocity, the potential gravitational field is no different than it is when the mass is at rest. The mass and its gravitational field do not vary with velocity. The only thing that does vary is momentum.

The Lorentz factor is part of calculations of momentum within special relativity. It is also a component of the lorentz transformations. It does not change the mass, it adjusts the influence that velocity has on momentum.

$$\gamma = \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-{v^2/c^2}}$$ is the Lorentz factor. Where in there is any reference to mass?

I thought that Okun did a pretty good job of explaining this without too much math. Perhaps I was wrong.
 
It certainly needs sorting for it has got me confused.
Rest mass is easy. Kinetic energy is easy Momentum is easy but when velocities get up the relationship between energy applied and resultant change in velocity breaks down. I had previously believed this was because the mass that was being accelerated was increasing.
This mass would then disappear as the object slowed again. :)

This has been pretty much accepted as an a priori for a long time. It is beginning to appear that inertia itself may be the limiting factor. Some of the attempts to explain inertia as emergent from and object's motion through the vacuum energy of space, would explain the increasing energy required, to accelerate an object as its velocity increases.

The faster it goes the greater its interaction with vacuum energy and the greater the resistance to further acceleration.

There are a number of attempts to work this out, so far I have not seen any that are entirely successful, but the basic concept does seem sound.
 
OnlyMe said:
Mass and energy are not equivalent.
If that's true, what does $$E\; =\; mc^2 $$ mean?
I never said mass was momentum
You said relativistic mass is momentum.
$$\gamma = \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-{v^2/c^2}}$$ is the Lorentz factor. Where in there is any reference to mass?
Nowhere. But in $$m\; =\; \frac {m_0} {\sqrt{1-{v^2/c^2}}$$ there is a reference to mass, namely the variation of mass with relative velocity, i.e. relativistic mass. As explained above, in post #241, "rest mass" is just the value of m when v = 0.

How do you get the right hand side of that last equation to look like momentum without multiplying by a velocity? Where is the reference to momentum in the equation? You previously claimed that the Lorentz factor including a nonzero velocity meant that m is "associated with" momentum. What does that mean?

Where or what is the confusion Okun talks about? I just can't see it.
 
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If that's true, what does $$E\; =\; mc^2 $$ mean?
You said relativistic mass is momentum.
Nowhere. But in $$m\; =\; \frac {m_0} {\sqrt{1-{v^2/c^2}}$$ there is a reference to mass, namely the variation of mass with relative velocity, i.e. relativistic mass. As explained above, in post #241, "rest mass" is just the value of m when v = 0.

How do you get the right hand side of that last equation to look like momentum without multiplying by a velocity? Where is the reference to momentum in the equation? You previously claimed that the Lorentz factor including a nonzero velocity meant that m is "associated with" momentum. What does that mean?

Where or what is the confusion Okun talks about? I just can't see it.

The confusion comes from the fact that mass does not change with an object's velocity. Its momentum does change. The concept of relativistic mass has some historical basis but it is not consistent with what we have come to know in the last 100 years.

There is no relativistic mass, the now archaic term "relativistic mass" is a reference to momentum.

There are not many more ways I can say it. Read Okun's paper. He explains the issue with $$m$$ and $$m_o$$ pretty well. Heck look up some historical references on Standford Encyclopedia of Phylosophy, it's online and has quite a bit that talks about physics.

This really is nothing new. But as Okun pointed out it is stuck in popular lay publications and even many physics texts. Old habits are often hard to change.
 
As I recall, it comes about as a consequence of the conservatiopn of momentum, does it not? I'm sure I have, or have seen a derivation somewhere.
 
The confusion comes from the fact that mass does not change with an object's velocity. Its momentum does change. The concept of relativistic mass has some historical basis but it is not consistent with what we have come to know in the last 100 years.

There is no relativistic mass, the now archaic term "relativistic mass" is a reference to momentum.

There are not many more ways I can say it. Read Okun's paper. He explains the issue with $$m$$ and $$m_o$$ pretty well. Heck look up some historical references on Standford Encyclopedia of Phylosophy, it's online and has quite a bit that talks about physics.

This really is nothing new. But as Okun pointed out it is stuck in popular lay publications and even many physics texts. Old habits are often hard to change.
Well would you like to offer an explanation why it becomes impossible to accelerate a mass beyond the speed of light, using the terms rest mass, momentum and velocity please?
 
Say we took an object of mass M at zero velocity. Next, we add propulsion energy to the Mass, so its velocity increases toward C. Based on SR, we would generate relativistic mass.

If you dont supply continuous energy , you can not generate relativistic mass . The frame-dragging effect will slow down the relativistic speed , to a speed at which the Mass will not cause any frame-dragging .

Relativistic mass acts analogous to gravitational mass. in that it contains the potential energy intermediate that is needed to alter space-time. The relativistic mass acts in SR in an way that is loosely analogous to the way mass act in GR.

There is a big difference between the two. With mass and GR there is a pressure effect due to gravity which pushes things physically together within the GR space-time reference. This allows things like fusion to occur. It also increases atmospheric pressure so gases condense, etc.

Relativistic mass of SR acts differently than the mass in GR, in that SR is not about inducing pressure and density, but rather relativistic mass acts similar to the unified force altering everything in the reference, so everything can adjust to the needs of the altered space-time while retaining configurational integrity.
 
It certainly needs sorting for it has got me confused.
Rest mass is easy. Kinetic energy is easy Momentum is easy but when velocities get up the relationship between energy applied and resultant change in velocity breaks down. I had previously believed this was because the mass that was being accelerated was increasing.
This mass would then disappear as the object slowed again. :)

How mass can increase due to its velocity ? ... Due to increase of velocity only its energy and momentum can increase . Mass remains constant .

A mass has a weight . The mass consists of molecules .

Weight of a mass = Weight of a molecule * Number of molecules of the mass .

How due to velocity , this number of molecules can change ?
 
How mass can increase due to its velocity ? ... Due to increase of velocity only its energy and momentum can increase . Mass remains constant .

A mass has a weight . The mass consists of molecules .

Weight of a mass = Weight of a molecule * Number of molecules of the mass .

How due to velocity , this number of molecules can change ?
I have no problem thinking that matter with additional Energy has addition mass, additional inertia, and additional kinetic energy if there is motion involved.
Extra mass implies extra weight in a gravitational field.
I have no problem with any of these, so why do you?
Due to increase of velocity only its energy and momentum can increase . Mass remains constant .
There is no longer the proportional relationsip F = MA when the velocities gets higher The velocity stops rising as rapidly, like as if the mass is increasing.

As I asked before "Well would you like to offer an explanation why it becomes impossible to accelerate a mass beyond the speed of light, using the terms rest mass, momentum and velocity please? "
 
I have no problem thinking that matter with additional Energy has addition mass, additional inertia, and additional kinetic energy if there is motion involved.
Extra mass implies extra weight in a gravitational field.
I have no problem with any of these, so why do you?
There is no longer the proportional relationsip F = MA when the velocities gets higher The velocity stops rising as rapidly, like as if the mass is increasing.

As I asked before "Well would you like to offer an explanation why it becomes impossible to accelerate a mass beyond the speed of light, using the terms rest mass, momentum and velocity please? "
http://lhc-machine-outreach.web.cern.ch/lhc-machine-outreach/lhc-machine-outreach-faq.htm

LHC Machine Outreach FAQ


What need is there for such large dimensions of your particle accelerator as you cannot accelerate particles beyond speed of light?

For the answer to this we have to turn Einstein's special theory of relativity.

Basically the relativistic mass of a particle increases with velocity and tends to infinity as the velocity approaches the speed of light.

In practical terms our protons are moving a very small fraction below the speed of light. As we increase the energy (and momentum) they only get a very small fraction closer to the velocity of light - never reaching it. However, their energy and momentum do increase considerably.

For a given momentum, our magnets need to provide a force necessary to bend the beam around in the 27 km. The increase in momentum is exactly reflected in the increased force we have to apply with these magnets as we increase the energy of the beam.

The size of the LHC is basically determined by the maximum strength of our dipole magnets. If the ring were smaller they would have to be a lot stronger.

For a more detailed discussion see:

http://math.ucr.edu/home/baez/physics/Relativity/SR/mass.html
You would think they know better! :)

For the momentum to increase more than the change in velocity can only be explained by the change in the mass
Momentum = MV, if momentum goes up but the velocity doesn't change much, that implies the mass has increased.
That's my way of thinking.
 
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