The passages about 'Haman' appear in the stories about Moses and his confrontations with the Pharaoh which also appears in other religious texts that predates the Qu'ran.
Source? I don't know any other text where it talks about Haman in the story of Moses
You would need to look at the book of Esther and see how the word/name 'Haman' was used.
The story is that he built a 75ft gallows...
So he is associated with building something. There is also the fact that in the story of Esther, he had planned to eradicate all Jews, including Esther. In the story of Moses in the Qu'ran, he was responsible for killing the son's of the Israelites..
I looked up the story of Haman in the book of Esther. It's indeed similiar to the story in the Qur'an in that Haman builds a tower in the Qur'an.
Although in the Qur'an it doesn't talk about Haman killing the Israelites, he along with the pharaoh are just enemies to Moses and his followers. Nothing more specific in that regard.
Also, it's also wrong that no year has more rain than another. The Earth has experienced intensive, vicious dry periods, such as at the end of the Permian.
Also, in glacial ages when most of the water was locked up in ice, there would have been little evaporation, and hence little water for rain.
Yes, that's true. A muslim would rationalize this by saying it meant the contemporary age, and could have to restrict it further if the global warming causes the rain to increase for example.
Yearly rain also varies. It's not even a slippery resemblance to reality. It's pap.
I wanted to put a reference in my OP, but the site I knew was down.
then I searched for another one again, look
here
I'd guess that since it talks about the amounts in increments of 1,000 km3, that the amount of rain varies by 2,000 km3 of water between 2 years at most. And that's probably not much of a variation over the whole earth. The islamic texts usually speak in general not too precise manner, so in a way you could interpret it to mean that the amount of rainfall is 'about' the same.
Still I'd like to know the possibility if ancients could deduce this in the places they resided in for a long time, since they were observing the sky more than us, or if they could know it in another way.
Then you obviously know little about Neolithic temples and burial tombs and stone circles and the manner in which they often aligned with the sun and other neolithic objects. Alignments were big in our ancient history. You can look at the
UK as a prime example.
That's cool, but I want to understand exactly how accurate they are
"Using modern surveyors' Ranging Poles, it is possible, with care, to obtain an accuracy of alignment of 1cm in 100m or 1m in 1km. The same technology and accuracy was available to Neolithic man."
What do I understand from this?