Mental Instability Diagnosis of Mohammed

Originally posted by Cris
Interesting article that examines the mental instability of Mohammed and how such a major religion can be founded just on delusions.

http://www.kashmirherald.com/featuredarticle/elst-wahi-part6.html

Just a few random highlights -

Of all the founders of religions, none has left a more detailed biography than the Prophet of Islam.

As indications of a latent mental problem, this is still pretty vague, but this much is clear that even as a boy, Mohammed was noticed as a special case.

In the years preceding the start of the Quranic revelations, we know that his wife Khadija thought he had the “evil eye”. For this reason, she sent him to exorcists for treatment. This again we only know in very general terms, but it corroborates the suspicion that Mohammed was predisposed to developing a mental problem, and that his contemporaries were aware of his unusual psychic complexion.

From that point onwards, her supportive attitude to her husband’s initially desperate attempts to come to terms with his trances took on the character of a folie à deux: though not afflicted herself, she went along with his self-delusion. She became the first believer, the first one to surrender (Islam) her common-sense judgment and take his claims as true.

…it is the contents of Mohammed’s hallucinations which clearly mark him as a paranoia patient.

The disproportion between his new self-perception and his actual social status as an ordinary businessman and later as a derided cult leader was unbearable. In fact, intolerance of others’ skepticism, along with vengefulness, is a typical trait of paranoia patients. And so, we find Mohammed singling out each of his critics for assassination or execution.

Of Mohammed’s physical traits, one which draws the attention is that he suffered of chronic headaches, which he tried to remedy by bleeding himself in two veins in his neck. While in itself not enough to indicate a brain problem, it certainly fits that picture once more indications are found.

….. indicates an identifiable neuropathological basis for Mohammed’s hallucinations. As a hypothetical physiological explanation of Mohammed’s mental problems, Dr. Somers suggests that very near the main sensory (auditive and visual) nerves in the mid-brain and on the front part of his pituitary gland, Mohammed had developed a tumor. But this is more speculative than the well-attested psychopathological diagnosis of Mohammed’s paranoia condition.

Mohammed’s paranoia, by contrast, is an obvious, widely attested and diagnostically articulate fact.

Sad to say, this world religion espoused by more than a billion contemporary human beings, is based on a delusion.
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:D

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It's most likely that all the founders of religions are insane, not just the founder of Islam.
Unfortunately, however, this statement is a praise. It's, for all practical purposes, the same thing as saying "they are geniuses"!
Just skim through this:
http://www.google.ca/search?q=cache...+mental+instability+and+genius&hl=en&ie=UTF-8
 
Chris:

That isn’t science, just poor observation. The term ‘creation’ implies a creator yet there is no evidence that anything has ever been created, at least nothing complex.
Use the word "cause", so we can skip semantics. And again, complexity is relative and irrelevant. Everything is cause and effect. People designed the most complex microprocessors; thus, they caused the existence of said processors. Your biological parents having intercourse caused your birth. This is simply how our universe operates-- at least according to our observations thus far.

If you look more carefully you will see that everything that exists is the result of an earlier developmental phase and in terms of anything complex a simpler state. Even computers evolved and are still evolving. What we really observe are state changes.
Ok fine. Lets accept your assertion that everything that exists can be divided into simpler parts. For these 'simpler states' to combine to form more complex stages requires an action, thus a cause. And this is very simplistic and irrelevant to my argument. For you see, even if modern computers (to use your example) are still evolving, theirs are changes initiated by us humans. Also the first computer was envisioned, design and built by humans-- this is causation or creation.

That isn’t science. You could call it inductive reasoning but there are serious issues with that. The most obvious is that if everything must have a cause then that requires an impossible hierarchical infinite series of causes and effects.
I see. Tell me Chris, how does Science answer questions regarding "time" or existence before the Big Bang? The answer is almost always that they do not truly know, for their model does not extend before the Big Bang. How does this apply to my example of a cause and effect and your incorrect assertion that my assertion implies an infinite series of causes and effects? Simply, my model does not extend beyond that which created or caused us-- using the very same logic used to explain events preceding the Big Bang. I cannot by definition imply anything before my existence using observational data, except for the moment of my existence. For it is at that critical moment when all the observations that are available for my deductions originate.

So show the evidence that something complex has been created and did not evolve.
Value based arguments are so annoying. If I say the first microprocessor that was created was complex because at its birth, it was a first, and thus, revolutionary, and used the most advanced technology of its time, you will probably insinuate that it was based likewise based on something and that thing based on something and bla bla bla. Either way, I will still assert: the first computer was complex. The toasted egg I had today for breakfast was complex--- the complexity must necessarily lie in the toasting for the assertion to be valid. Just so you do proceed along the path you will most like go, understand that we are talking of a CAUSE. I caused the egg to become toasted-- or at I least I started the processes that lead to a toasted egg. The same principles apply to the first computer.

You are claiming that everything has a cause, so finish the story and explain who caused the creator and who caused the creator of the creator, and the creator of the creator of the creator, etc, ad infinitum. The only exit is to claim there was a first cause but then that invalidates the claim that everything has a cause which means we can simply dispense with your entire irrational claim.
Look above at the boundaries that are by definition, necessary in physics.

The only meaningful answer is that everything that exists has always existed and simply undergoes variations of state changes. Nothing is ever created or destroyed, but changes from one form into another, and that is fully consistent with the science of physics and is demonstrable. There is no need for a creator and no evidence to support that one could or should exist.
It is most certainly one explanation, but by no means the only one meaningful. Else, why would this debate be going? Or should we all accept your notion of meaningful. Chris, for your own sake, stray from arguments based on subjectivity.

Easy – I flick the light switch but the bulb had already burnt out so there is no effect – darkness persists.
This coming from you is a shocker! Of course you caused many, many effects. You cause sound to emanate from a space where it was originally non-existent. You started or caused a release of heat through friction. You are looking only at the expected effect.

These are just state changes.
You seem to be trying to extend the notion that energy cannot be created or destroyed, merely transferred. This is not applicable.
 
To rationally claim that something is possible means that one is able to demonstrate such a possibility, i.e. that a god could exist. To date not only has no one shown that a god exists but no one has been able to show the possibility that a god could exist. The claim that a god might be possible is like claiming that with two dice it is possible to throw a 13.
Rational possibility? Sorry man, you are confusing probability and possibility. Possibility even implies that which is not probable: throwing two dice and getting a 13.
 
(Q):

So what - this happens almost every day of the week on almost every street corner of almost every city in the world. I beg to see the difference between these people and Mohammed. Could you please enlighten us as to why one should follow Mohammed and not these others.
Why are you even making this absolutely irrelevant statement? Did I assert that Mohammed was anymore enlightened than those you see “on every street corner”? This is what I asserted: .A subsequently prods along and tries to convince those that will listen to his assertions, his belief..

False assertion – Science is a system of observing and understanding reality and the way in which the universe works. This is hardly a belief system.
You have to accept by belief that the conclusions based on repeated observations are true. Within the system of sciences, certain conclusions have been shown to be false. Therefore, it is a belief system
1. Because it requires that you believe its conclusions as true
2. Because it can generate false conclusions.

Of course not – Science addresses the physical, the existent, while religion grapples with the supernatural, the non-existent. How does one even relate to the other? You cannot draw comparisons here.
Yet again, we go full circle. Both models rely on physical observations. Science relies on repeated or testable predictions based on observations to imply both physical—as in, we can sense with our 5 senses, and the “nonphysical” as in, we cannot sense. The Big Bang is science is an induction. A quark is science is an induction.

B doesn’t simply refuse because B knows science does not require religion or gods to explain anything. Gods tend to add more levels of complexity to already simple answers.
LOL. And this is precisely the problem. B believes that his system is the truth and wants A to explain A’s system within B’s context—and this cannot be, as I have already explained. If B “already” knows the “answers”, then why other with A?

B does not necessarily consider A to be wrong – B simply ignores the claims made by A because there is no evidence to support A, as you say, it is a belief that deals with the supernatural and non-existent. I’m sure that B would be happy to give A’s claims a chance if A could provide something tangible based in reality.
This is confusing. My “scenario” presented B, the atheist. B accepts that A is wrong. As for the agnostic, it is really simple, as I have previously explained. The only way, and this is by definition, that B can understand A or see A’s “proof’ is by accepting A’s assertion on faith.

Simple, A holds the burden of proof if A is to convince anyone of anything. Of course, A does not have to worry about that – A will find multitudes of gullible people who are willing to believe anything.
This person, C, is an assuming elitist. So everyone that does not subscribe to his view point is necessarily gullible? Subjectivity drenched arguments really do make me sick.

Now, you may consider this self-serving circularity, but you must first show me the difference between Mohammed and anyone else that has visions and hears revelations from gods? Why should anyone believe Mohammed and not the others?
This is fucking irrelevant! It does not matter who the individual is, which is why I used A. I will not engage in the pathetic back and forths that characterizes a lot of arguments within this sub-forum. If I make an argument, answer it directly or don’t bother!
 
/how does Science answer questions regarding "time" or existence before the Big Bang?

How could there have been existence before the big bang? I'd think it'd be difficult to "exist" in the sense you seem to mean without space-time.

/The answer is almost always that they do not truly know, for their model does not extend before the Big Bang.

If that was the beginning of the universe, how could a model extend before it?

/How does this apply to my example of a cause and effect and your incorrect assertion that my assertion implies an infinite series of causes and effects?

What if the universe simply IS? How can cause and effect exist in a relationship without space-time in which to do so?

/Simply, my model does not extend beyond that which created or caused us-- using the very same logic used to explain events preceding the Big Bang.

Reason might apply to considering events before the big bang, but how can logic apply outside of time?

/I cannot by definition imply anything before my existence using observational data, except for the moment of my existence.

So you knew all that then, of course.

/For it is at that critical moment when all the observations that are available for my deductions originate.

But then you don't have your infinite series of cause and effect eh? More like a subjective infinity (the universe as the subject) eh? Kind of like when a person is born.
 
How could there have been existence before the big bang? I'd think it'd be difficult to "exist" in the sense you seem to mean without space-time.
We are talking of "time", not existence.

If that was the beginning of the universe, how could a model extend before it?
This is the whole point. If the model that tries to explain existence explains or attempts to exlains how we came to being, how can it extend before said model?

What if the universe simply IS? How can cause and effect exist in a relationship without space-time in which to do so?
I do not understand the above statament. The scientific model means using observations to generate and test a model and then predicting that the model will follow future observations. I observe cause and effect in all and this extrapolate that i was also caused, and that the last and first of all we can pereive/observe was caused. I test this model by further observing future cause and effects. The simplicity is stunning,

Reason might apply to considering events before the big bang, but how can logic apply outside of time?
I also do not understand this. Logic and reason do not apply before. Because they exist within the context of our existence.

But then you don't have your infinite series of cause and effect eh? More like a subjective infinity (the universe as the subject) eh? Kind of like when a person is born.
Let me see if I understand this correctly. You are asserting that there an infinite amount of cause and effects within the universe? Well, that would be irrelevant; it must be something else. What I am saying is that the model of a creator I present-- and which to answer a punk who obviously does not read my posts correctly-- I do not believe in (I ascribe to no faith), there is no infinite amount of cause and effects, for the model terminates at the immediate cause of this reality or existence or universe.
 
Flores,

He is full of shit just like you. He is no expert in medecine and that makes you a LIAR......If I were you Cris, I would run to the sink, because your pants are catching fire.

If I were you, I would start digging material from a different trash. Your expert have been exposed.
You appear to have made a mistake. Your comments refer to the author of the article Dr. Koenraad ELST, whose credentials you have apparently accurately quoted, however, the title of the article is “Dr. Somers’ diagnosis of Mohammed”. The diagnosis was made by a qualified Psychologist, i.e. the expert I was referencing.

The article clearly states -

The Flemish psychologist, Dr. Herman Somers, formerly a Jesuit who became a religious skeptic after discovering psychopathological elements in the utterances of some Biblical prophets, has elaborated the first technical diagnosis of Mohammed’s behaviour. So far, it is only available in Dutch: Een andere Mohammed (“A different Mohammed”, Hadewych, Antwerp 1993), but I will give its outline in English. The basis of this diagnosis is the elaborate description of Mohammed’s personality and conduct provided by the Quran and by the Hadith (traditions of the prophet, grouped by theme) and Sira (chronological biography) literature.

More on the articles and work of Dr. Herman Somers. http://users.skynet.be/sky50779/home.htm

More on the illnesses of Mohammed. http://users.skynet.be/sky50779/mohammed.htm
 
Thefountainhed,

People designed the most complex microprocessors; thus, they caused the existence of said processors.
If this were true why didn’t ancient Egyptians build computers? Modern microprocessors are the result of a long evolutionary trail that probably began with the abacus. The role of people was that of a catalyst that used intelligence to step from one stage to another slightly more complex.

The cause of microprocessors was an evolutionary process.

Also the first computer was envisioned, design and built by humans-- this is causation or creation.
Which was just one step in a long chain where each step helped feed into something more complex – this is evolution. The first computer evolved from simpler mechanical machines, etc.

People are not creators, just components in evolutionary processes.
 
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/We are talking of "time", not existence.

Please explain the difference.

/This is the whole point. If the model that tries to explain existence explains or attempts to exlains how we came to being, how can it extend before said model?

Exactly.

/I do not understand the above statament.

If there were no cause nor effect the only other option that I can really comprehend is, "is". Think Tao.

/The scientific model means using observations to generate and test a model and then predicting that the model will follow future observations.

Hehe, hey I know that. You dissing IE's? LOL.

/I observe cause and effect in all and this extrapolate that i was also caused, and that the last and first of all we can pereive/observe was caused.

But once you determine the first in the series (like the big bang for instance) your chain of causality is at its root. How can you say anything about cause and effect before cause and effect came to be? This implies the IS. (mind you, it's just the reasonable solution to an impossible problem (I mean how can you say what is or isn't without confidence in causality?))

/I test this model by further observing future cause and effects. The simplicity is stunning,

Certainly.

Logic and reason do not apply before.

I didn't say they did. I said the only way to attempt to fathom the possibilties is via reason, as logic is not necessariliy applicable. My reasoning concludes that it simply IS. No cause, no effect, simply endless dichotomy. It is because there is an isn't. Simple probability in a philosophical context.

/Because they exist within the context of our existence. Yes but certainly reason is the only means by which we may attempt to understand things outside of our context.

/Let me see if I understand this correctly. You are asserting that there an infinite amount of cause and effects within the universe?

No I thought that was what you were saying.

*steps away from the :m:*

My bad I guess.

I was trying to demonstrate the opposite.

/What I am saying is that the model of a creator I present-- and which to answer a punk who obviously does not read my posts correctly--

Bite me Byatch. Like you've never misread. :rolleyes:

Punk. ;)

/I do not believe in (I ascribe to no faith), there is no infinite amount of cause and effects, for the model terminates at the immediate cause of this reality or existence or universe.

Oh yeah well so what then, big deal.

*stomps off*

Hehe.

Er what I meant to say was we're obviously in agreement aboot all that there.

In this case any assertion regarding a deity is simply pointless don't you think? Unknowable? Sure guy A talks his smack, but he forgoes reason when he asks me to subscribe to incredulous claims (as he may when relating the experience).

And we know mental illness to be quite common.

And we know that the context surrounding the existence of man was extremely lacking compared to current knowledge, so the farther back one looks at culture, the less context, the more believable just about ANY bullshit becomes right? *shrug*

Well it's unreasonable to assert a deity, even to one's self if one is truly reasonable, well .. by what I deem to be reasonable at least.
 
Thefountainhed,

Rational possibility? Sorry man, you are confusing probability and possibility. Possibility even implies that which is not probable: throwing two dice and getting a 13.
I understand how many do confuse the two, as you have done, but my analogy is quite precise.

Probability is the study of likely outcomes from a set of possible outcomes. Given a finite set of possible outcomes we can discuss the likelihood or probability of any one of these being an actual result.

In the case of the dice there are a total of 36 possible outcomes, and only 36. The probability of any particular result can be precisely mathematically calculated, but can never be less than 2 or greater than 12. I.e. the value 13 is not possible.

Given our current knowledge of the universe all that we have observed is material. The analogy is with the 36 possible outcomes of the dice.

To claim that there is a 37th possibility is analogous to saying there is something beyond the material universe, i.e. the supernatural. But we only know of 36 possible outcomes. To say that there is a 37th possibility requires a proof. With the dice of course I would have little difficultly constructing a formal proof showing that 36 is the maximum. Or perhaps just request the claimant to show how they can throw a 13. In the case of the supernatural the request is similar, if you believe it is possible then provide a demonstration. Until then it is not rational to claim the supernatural is a possibility.
 
Originally posted by Cris
Thefountainhed,
.

Cris> I didn't read the whole link you mentioned. However to me it sounded very biased, due to the writers background, education institutions etc. However an un bias article or analysis would be nice. Just my two pennies.
 
Thefountainhed,

How about Cris once in a while? It is my real name.

I see. Tell me Chris, how does Science answer questions regarding "time" or existence before the Big Bang? The answer is almost always that they do not truly know, for their model does not extend before the Big Bang.
I agree they do not truly know but there are many models that extend beyond the big bang, which is now a somewhat old theory.

Theories about multiple big bangs (big bang bubbles) have now been current for sometime, see Alan Guth (MIT), Andre Linde (Stanford). Both indicate that big bang theory is really just a part of inflationary theory rather than the reverse. That the universe may likely comprise an infinite number of big bang bubbles seems to rise naturally from the current understanding of how our own local big bang began.

However, the cyclic theory has also recently been resurrected as more likely than infinite expansion. http://www.spacedaily.com/news/cosmology-02c.html There are a number of recent articles on this.

How does this apply to my example of a cause and effect and your incorrect assertion that my assertion implies an infinite series of causes and effects? Simply, my model does not extend beyond that which created or caused us—
In effect you are trying to place an arbitrary limit on your speculation that everything has a cause because you want a god creator to be the first cause. That is not logical and is quite disingenuous. Either everything has a cause, which leads to an impossible infinite series or you need to adopt a different but honest model.

You are simply trying to achieve the first cause or uncaused first cause argument of the creationists. You cannot reach that by following the cause and effect route, since I can just as easily argue that the universe itself could be the first cause, i.e. it just is, which does not require the imaginative fantasy of a supernatural realm or incredible super beings to be part of the proposal.

using the very same logic used to explain events preceding the Big Bang.
But these explanations result in the universe being infinite, in which case it can never have been created, i.e. there is no need of a creator.

I cannot by definition imply anything before my existence using observational data, except for the moment of my existence. For it is at that critical moment when all the observations that are available for my deductions originate.
Only if you want to rely solely on your own personal observations, however, we are a species and we can easily share and pass on observations from others.

No idea really where you are going with this line of thought.
 
Markx,

Thanks for the comment. I'd like to read the original text but I can't read Dutch.

I will admit I haven't looked elsewhere yet.
 
In the case of the dice there are a total of 36 possible outcomes, and only 36. The probability of any particular result can be precisely mathematically calculated, but can never be less than 2 or greater than 12. I.e. the value 13 is not possible.
My current limitted understanding is that quantum theory says that everything is possible but not probable.

I don't think extending the big bang into multiple big bangs gains you anything. If we assume that time has always existed then this is just as supernatural as any religion.
 
Cris
I must apologize for having misspelled your name previously.

If this were true why didn’t ancient Egyptians build computers? Modern microprocessors are the result of a long evolutionary trail that probably began with the abacus. The role of people was that of a catalyst that used intelligence to step from one stage to another slightly more complex.
By such logic then the abacus follows an evolutionary trial that begins with what? And that thing is an evolutionary trial that begins with what? The universe since it encompasses everything within this existence therefore must represent the most complex stage. This would imply that the evolutionary trial has an end at any given moment, and therefore the trial is not infinite. What then caused the start of the most fundamental stage?

Either way, I think that your assertion is self-defeating; for a catalyst is cause.

Which was just one step in a long chain where each step helped feed into something more complex – this is evolution. The first computer evolved from simpler mechanical machines, etc. People are not creators, just components in evolutionary processes.
Even if I accept your assertion, then as catalysts, they are also initiating evolutionary processes every time these ‘components’ take something less complex and make it more complex.
 
Probability is the study of likely outcomes from a set of possible outcomes.
Yes. But the set of possible outcomes but be finite for probability theory to apply.

Given a finite set of possible outcomes we can discuss the likelihood or probability of any one of these being an actual result.
Correct..

In the case of the dice there are a total of 36 possible outcomes, and only 36. The probability of any particular result can be precisely mathematically calculated, but can never be less than 2 or greater than 12. I.e. the value 13 is not possible.
Yes, in probability theory, the outcome 13 is impossible. But this impossibility exists only within the limited context of probability theory itself.

To claim that there is a 37th possibility is analogous to saying there is something beyond the material universe, i.e. the supernatural. But we only know of 36 possible outcomes. To say that there is a 37th possibility requires a proof. With the dice of course I would have little difficultly constructing a formal proof showing that 36 is the maximum. Or perhaps just request the claimant to show how they can throw a 13. In the case of the supernatural the request is similar, if you believe it is possible then provide a demonstration. Until then it is not rational to claim the supernatural is a possibility.
The above again ask that I prove an assertion within the context of science when the original assertion (a God) by definition cannot exist within science. Either way, no, it is certainly not analogous. For in the case of the dice, you defined all the 36 outcomes. Thus by definition, there cannot be a 37th possibility within the context you are using. However, within the context of the universe, you, by definition of your system accept an infinite space. An infinite space necessarily means an infinite amount of possibilities.
 
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I agree they do not truly know but there are many models that extend beyond the big bang, which is now a somewhat old theory.
But an accepted theory within science nevertheless.

Theories about multiple big bangs (big bang bubbles) have now been current for sometime, see Alan Guth (MIT), Andre Linde (Stanford). Both indicate that big bang theory is really just a part of inflationary theory rather than the reverse. That the universe may likely comprise an infinite number of big bang bubbles seems to rise naturally from the current understanding of how our own local big bang began.
I do not see the relevance, sorry.

In effect you are trying to place an arbitrary limit on your speculation that everything has a cause because you want a god creator to be the first cause. That is not logical and is quite disingenuous. Either everything has a cause, which leads to an impossible infinite series or you need to adopt a different but honest model.

You are simply trying to achieve the first cause or uncaused first cause argument of the creationists. You cannot reach that by following the cause and effect route, since I can just as easily argue that the universe itself could be the first cause, i.e. it just is, which does not require the imaginative fantasy of a supernatural realm or incredible super beings to be part of the proposal.

**Sigh** What is the Big Bang or its variants but an attempt to explain a first cause?
Let’s do this step by step:

Context: Universe—observable.

Observations: Everything has a cause or a ‘catalyst’, a modifier, etc. Everything must be initiated.
Conclusion: Everything within this universe then must follow this observed pattern up to the very first effect within this observable universe.
Realize that by definition, the model cannot extend beyond the first cause that initiated this universe. Accepting from science that this universe is infinitely aged means the string of causes and effects had to have a starting point that is measurable within the context of this observable universe.
What I call this first cause—God, Allah, Ant, energy is irrelevant for the first cause is simply that, and any explanations pertaining to its being cannot be realized from the model presented.
But these explanations result in the universe being infinite, in which case it can never have been created, i.e. there is no need of a creator.
I do not see how the size of the universe implies that it could not have been caused.

Only if you want to rely solely on your own personal observations, however, we are a species and we can easily share and pass on observations from others.
Ok then Cris, test my observations that everything has a cause or a ‘catalyst’, or a modifier, etc. within the context of the observable universe.

No idea really where you are going with this line of thought.
It means that logic is based on observations (rules) of the nature of its context—the universe. It by definition cannot explain anything outside this context. If for example there were parallel universes, the logic of this will not necessarily apply.


It is important that we do not lose track of the very thing that started this whole argument about this model that I proposed. You must realize that the only reason why I am attempting to prove this within the context of science is to differentiate said model from one that would suggest that the assertions must be based on faith alone.
 
wesmorris

Please explain the difference.
:eek: Are you insane? I dare not try.

If there were no cause nor effect the only other option that I can really comprehend is, "is". Think Tao.
Which would necessarily imply either an infinite time or a lack thereof of time. If you accept science, then you know that this universe is aged. Therefore, simply ‘IS’ would be nonsense.

But once you determine the first in the series (like the big bang for instance) your chain of causality is at its root. How can you say anything about cause and effect before cause and effect came to be? This implies the IS. (mind you, it's just the reasonable solution to an impossible problem (I mean how can you say what is or isn't without confidence in causality?))
You cannot imply anything about the nature of the cause using that train of thought. You can merely suggest that there was a cause for the first effect and leave it at that.

I didn't say they did. I said the only way to attempt to fathom the possibilties is via reason, as logic is not necessariliy applicable. My reasoning concludes that it simply IS. No cause, no effect, simply endless dichotomy. It is because there is an isn't. Simple probability in a philosophical context.
Explain to me the reasoning.

I was trying to demonstrate the opposite.
Little punk, learn how to read.

Bite me Byatch. Like you've never misread.
I am going to lie: No I have never misread.

Nerd.

Oh yeah well so what then, big deal.
*stomps off*

Hehe.
Moron. **chuckle**

In this case any assertion regarding a deity is simply pointless don't you think? Unknowable? Sure guy A talks his smack, but he forgoes reason when he asks me to subscribe to incredulous claims (as he may when relating the experience).
Any assertion regarding a deity is only nonsense if and only if you accept that it is nonsense to challenge his claim—as neither of you can make any claims as to a deity—within a common context.

And we know mental illness to be quite common.
Yes. Every member of society is mentally ill.

And we know that the context surrounding the existence of man was extremely lacking compared to current knowledge, so the farther back one looks at culture, the less context, the more believable just about ANY bullshit becomes right? *shrug*
Wrong. The modern observations leading to the assertion has not changed from past observations. This would for example apply to the aged old knowledge that intercourse can result in birth. Minimal observations, but the same and correct conclusion. To use “ANY” is bullshit.

Well it's unreasonable to assert a deity, even to one's self if one is truly reasonable, well .. by what I deem to be reasonable at least.
Well then you can throw away your subjective take on reason and simply lick a bucket dry. :D
 
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Thefountainhed,

By such logic then the abacus follows an evolutionary trial that begins with what? And that thing is an evolutionary trial that begins with what?
Whatever came before.

The universe since it encompasses everything within this existence therefore must represent the most complex stage.
No that is a non-sequitur. You are assuming that everything that changes results in something more complex. Many evolutionary trails do not do that or survive; in fact it seems most trails do not survive. There is a distinct and real possibility that the human race could destroy itself in a nuclear war. Many species of insect and animal have become extinct. Increased complexity and survivability is not necessarily the result of an evolutionary change. The evolution of the computer and that of biological life are for the moment examples where complexity is increasing. However, there is also the possibility that another mutation of a deadly virus could appear and destroy all human life.

This emphasizes my point that what we observe are state changes, nothing is ever really created or destroyed; it is just that components become rearranged; some will form into greater complexity while others will go sideways or become extinct.

This would imply that the evolutionary trial has an end at any given moment, and therefore the trial is not infinite. What then caused the start of the most fundamental stage?
No as explained above. Things simply change, for good or worse.

Either way, I think that your assertion is self-defeating; for a catalyst is cause.
No, it just has to be present at the right time, with the appropriate other components. Just like everything else that evolves.

Even if I accept your assertion, then as catalysts, they are also initiating evolutionary processes every time these ‘components’ take something less complex and make it more complex.
Catalysts can only operate when the conditions are right. Take for example a marriage broker who brings two people together. All three have to be willing and active participants.

But this is leading to a discussion on determinism which I have found before has some unsatisfactory non-conclusions.
 
Whatever came before.
Thus, leading eventaully to what?

No that is a non-sequitur. You are assuming that everything that changes results in something more complex.
Your argument asserted stages--stages which can be broken down into simpler stages. This implies that the previous stage, before it was disected was more complex.

Many evolutionary trails do not do that or survive; in fact it seems most trails do not survive. There is a distinct and real possibility that the human race could destroy itself in a nuclear war. Many species of insect and animal have become extinct. Increased complexity and survivability is not necessarily the result of an evolutionary change. The evolution of the computer and that of biological life are for the moment examples where complexity is increasing. However, there is also the possibility that another mutation of a deadly virus could appear and destroy all human life.
Now this non-sequitur. The state changes must be initiated. Outside that, the manner of the change is irrrelevant.

This emphasizes my point that what we observe are state changes, nothing is ever really created or destroyed; it is just that components become rearranged; some will form into greater complexity while others will go sideways or become extinct.
No it does not, for you see, these changes are not arbitary nor do they simply happen by themselves.

No as explained above. Things simply change, for good or worse.
You did not address the post this was intended to address. Nevertheless, the changes are not arbitrary or self initiating. Also make sure to distinct between 'artificial' and 'natural' evolution.

No, it just has to be present at the right time, with the appropriate other components. Just like everything else that evolves.
Fine, let's follow this train of thought. If the right conditions necessitate change, then there had to be a first right condition.

Catalysts can only operate when the conditions are right. Take for example a marriage broker who brings two people together. All three have to be willing and active participants.
The condition is irrelevant for the catalyst nevertheless precipitates the change.

But this is leading to a discussion on determinism which I have found before has some unsatisfactory non-conclusions.
lol. what do you think the whole notion of cause and effect is? Why unsatisfcatory?
 
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