So because your vocabulary is limited you decided to misuse a word?
Assumption?
Gen 3:6
In other words they knew AFTER eating something they hadn't known before.
Gen 3:22
In other words they DIDN'T know of good and evil before eating.
You appear to be wrong. And drastically so.
So what?
And you're wrong on that, too -
Ps. 139:7-12
No, you're waffling incoherently (and making assumptions).
Nope.
Really? Then you're also introducing a fallacy (and misusing the word "fact"). If time did not exist before god "created" it then he couldn't do anything since time is what allows change.
Entertain the "fact"? Not at all.
So because your vocabulary is limited you decided to misuse a word?
What would you call it other than "limited perfection"?Assumption?
Gen 3:6
In other words they knew AFTER eating something they hadn't known before.
Gen 3:22
Gen 3:6
In other words they knew AFTER eating something they hadn't known before.
Gen 3:22
Their eyes had been opened to the fact that they had sinned.
Because of having a bad conscience after sinning, they had tried to hide from God’s vision among the trees of the garden of Eden. (Gen 3:8)
And the LORD God said, “The man has now become like one of us, knowing good and evil
What scripture is this? I can't find it in my Bible.So what?
And you're wrong on that, too -
Ps. 139:7-12
And you're wrong on that, too -
Ps. 139:7-12
The true God is not omnipresent, for he is spoken of as having a location. (1Ki 8:49; Joh 16:28; Heb 9:24) His throne is in heaven. (Isa 66:1) He is all-powerful, being the Almighty God. (Ge 17:1; Re 16:14) “All things are naked and openly exposed to the eyes of him,” and he is “the One telling from the beginning the finale.” (Heb 4:13; Isa 46:10,*11; 1Sa 2:3) His power and knowledge extend everywhere, reaching every part of the universe.—2Ch 16:9; Ps 139:7-12 (the scripture you refer to is not evidence of omnipresence); Am 9:2-4.
The prophetic words of Psalm 139:7-12 do not mean that God is omnipresent, that he is personally present in all places at all times. The Scriptures clearly show otherwise. (Deuteronomy 26:15; Hebrews 9:24) Yet, his servants are never beyond his reach. That is true of those whose theocratic assignments have taken them to distant places.
While the Bible always refers to God as having a specific dwelling place, it often speaks of his holy spirit in ubiquitous terms. “Where can I go from your spirit, and where can I run away from your face?” asked the psalmist David. (Psalm 139:7) Some have been confused by such references and may conclude that God is omnipresent. Yet, when considering the context of this and other texts, it becomes clear that Jehovah’s holy spirit—or power in action—can be extended from his fixed location to any place in the material universe.
Like a father’s hand extending down to console and support his children, Jehovah’s hand—or holy spirit—can extend to any part of the spiritual realm or the physical universe to accomplish Jehovah’s purpose. Hence, the psalmist could say: “Were I to take the wings of the dawn, that I might reside there in the most remote sea, there, also, your own hand would lead me and your right hand would lay hold of me.”—Psalm 139:9,*10.
No, you're waffling incoherently (and making assumptions).
To the fact that you were too close minded to see that time was created by God, (as to which I was referring you were closed minded about) was correct. You finally got it after several illustrations.Nope.
Yes you do, don't play games with me. You'd have to be as dumb as a rock to not get it with all those illustrations even.Really? Then you're also introducing a fallacy (and misusing the word "fact"). If time did not exist before god "created" it then he couldn't do anything since time is what allows change.
I didn't misuse the word fact. I said I was arguing (keyword) for it to be a fact. If you are simply going to repeat yourself I will do so, too:Just like you guys say matter and energy have always existed, God has always existed.
Time is non-existent to God/The Creator. The human brain is subject to believe whatever others tell it to believe. Say there were babies born in an underground base and someone told the children that the base was all there was to life, and nothing outside, that is what they would believe, correct? So later on, the person decides to tell the children the truth (this is me telling you time doesn't exist to God). But, now 1 child (you) says "This is all there is to life! There is nothing outside! That's not true!" And he says this quite literally, not because he is in shock or anything. Would that make sense? Its the same person who told you that that base was all there was to life! Would you not believe him when he says that it isn't?
In case you still don't get it, maybe something very very simple: A game company says a certain game will be released on July 27th. 1 month later, they say the game has been delayed to December 2nd. Would it make sense to think the game was still coming on July 27th, when the game company already said it has been delayed?
God put in us that there is time, you are currently trying to argue time DOES exist because... that's what you were meant to believe by God/The Creator! Which brings me to my overall theme I've been trying to argue: God does not have to abide by the standards (time) he has set for man.
If this doesn't do it for you, I don't know what will.